Đề minh họa môn Anh kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia có đáp án

1. Đề bài đề minh họa môn Anh kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1:
A. thank
B. thick
C. that
D. thing
Question 2:
A. miss
B. child
C. sign
D. mind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3:
A. balloon
B. spirit
C. panda
D. island
Question 4:
A. disappoint
B. satisfy
C. educate
D. recognise

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: The 31st SEA Games, ______ in Vietnam in 2022, left a deep impression on the participants.
A. were held
B. held
C. holding
D. were holding
Question 6: Life in the city is ______ than life in the countryside.
A. exciting
B. most exciting
C. the most exciting
D. more exciting

Question 7: Laura will buy a new laptop ______.
A. after she had got her salary
B. when she got her salary
C. as soon as she gets her salary
D. by the time she got her salary
Question 8: Linh is keen ______ cycling to school.
A. in
B. on
C. about
D. of
Question 9: Your house is opposite the cinema, ______?
A. does it
B. isn’t it
C. didn’t it
D. wasn’t it
Question 10: My hobby is reading ______ books. It’s relaxing.
A. Ø (no article)
B. an
C. the
D. a
Question 11: Our school ______ has had a record of 10,000 visits this week.
A. software
B. email
C. hardware
D. website
Question 12: As a foreign language student, you should learn how to _____ new words in the dictionary.
A. look down
B. write off
C. look up
D. take off
Question 13: He refused ______ overtime to spend the evening with his family.
A. to work
B. work
C. to working
D. working
Question 14: The other members in the group showed their dissatisfaction with Sarah’s not pulling her ______ in the project.
A. muscle
B. weight
C. head
D. teeth
Question 15: The students ______ noisily when the teacher came into the classroom.
A. were talking
B. talk
C. talked
D. are talking
Question 16: David still ______ contact with many of his old school friends.
A. catches
B. brings
C. takes
D. keeps
Question 17: She hopes that after her book comes out, it ______ by many people.
A. reads
B. will read
C. was reading
D. will be read
Question 18: Children often like wearing ______ colours on Tet holidays.
A. brightly
B. brighten
C. brightness
D. bright
Question 19: The band at that time was immensely popular and often played ______ to a(n) crowd of about 5,000.
A. probability
B. capability
C. capacity
D. ability

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tom is in a restaurant.
– Waiter: “Would you like to order now?”
– Tom: ” ______. A beefsteak and a Coke, please.”
A. Yes, I will go now
B. Yes, sure
C. No, thanks
D. Help yourself

Question 21: Jack and Linh are talking about technology.
– Jack: “I think robots will replace teachers in the near future.”
– Linh: ” ______. We still need teachers to inspire students.”
A. I don’t think so
B. It’s true
C. You’re right
D. I couldn’t agree more

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: It is important that the government should take action to preserve the historic building.
A. protect
B. destroy
C. save
D. maintain

Question 23: I have to postpone my family holiday until next month because I am now up to my ears in work.
A. having an ear infection
B. having so much work to do
C. having nothing much to do
D. having my ears checked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: You should use your own judgment; don’t trust everything you read online.
A. explain
B. suggest
C. believe
D. decide
Question 25: Most foreign visitors are attracted by the spectacular scenery of Ha Long Bay.
A. healthy
B. wealthy
C. familiar
D. wonderful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is compulsory for all road users to follow the traffic rules.
A. All road users needn’t follow the traffic rules.
B. All road users shouldn’t follow the traffic rules.
C. All road users must follow the traffic rules.
D. All road users may follow the traffic rules.

Question 27: I last heard from him five years ago.
A. I heard from him for five years.
B. I didn’t hear from him for five years.
C. I haven’t heard from him for five years.
D. I have heard from him for five years.

Question 28: “Where are you going this weekend?” asked my sister.
A. My sister asked me where I am going that weekend.
B. My sister asked me where am I going that weekend.
C. My sister asked me where I was going that weekend.
D. My sister asked me where was I going that weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 29: Most of the language used by teenagers today, especially in emails and text messages, is

almost unintelligent to elderly people.

Question 30: He breaks his father’s antique vase in the living room last night.

Question 31: My mother takes vitamins regularly as she believes that it benefit her mind and skin.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Nam is not here. He can’t give you any advice.
A. If only Nam had been here, he could have given you some advice.
B. If Nam were here, he couldn’t give you any advice.
C. Provided that Nam is here, he can’t give you any advice.
D. If Nam were here, he could give you some advice.
Question 33: Lan had just graduated from upper secondary school. She received a scholarship to study at a prestigious university.
A. But for a scholarship to study at a prestigious university, Lan wouldn’t have graduated from upper secondary school.
B. Hardly had Lan graduated from upper secondary school when she received a scholarship to study at a prestigious university.
C. Only after Lan had received a scholarship to study at a prestigious university did she graduate from upper secondary school.
D. Not until Lan had received a scholarship to study at a prestigious university did she graduate from upper secondary school.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
       Keeping fit and healthy may seem difficult, but there are a few easy-to-follow guidelines. Firstly, a balanced diet (34) ______ means selecting food that is low in salt and sugar is absolutely essential. Experts recommend reducing the amount of fat in our diet, as too much can (35) ______ heart problems.
       Secondly, it is important to (36) ______ exercise into your daily routine. This can be done by simply walking as much as possible and climbing stairs instead of taking the lift. Exercise is necessary to maintain a healthy body, as well as increasing energy levels and making you feel generally fitter and happier.
       Finally, staying relaxed is (37) ______ reason for good health. Too much stress can lead to a variety of illnesses, from headaches to high blood pressure. Whenever possible, do things you enjoy and treat yourself occasionally. (38) ______, the message is simple – enjoy yourself but learn to respect your body too. It’s all a question of getting a balance right.
(Adapted from FCE Use of English)
Question 34:
A. who
B. when
C. whose
D. which
Question 35:
A. solve
B. improve
C. prevent
D. cause
Question 36:
A. fit
B. match
C. use
D. search
Question 37:
A. few
B. another
C. many
D. much
Question 38:
A. So
B.  Or
C.  Although
D.  Since

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
        Sweden can be one of the first countries to stop using cash. In most cities, buses do not take any cash. Instead, you pay for your ticket by card or mobile phone before you get on. Some businesses only take cards and there are banks which do not deal with any notes or coins.
       Sweden can be one of the first countries to stop using cash. In most cities, buses do not take any cash. Instead, you pay for your ticket by card or mobile phone before you get on. Some businesses only take cards and there are banks which do not deal with any notes or coins.
        In a cashless society, you do not need to worry about having enough change for the bus. You will feel much more secure as well. Statistics show that since the decrease in the cash economy, there is not as much crime in Sweden.
        However, not all Swedes like the idea. Elderly people complain much about the problems of paying by card. Small businesses are also unhappy because they have to pay a little money to the bank each time somebody pays them using a card.
        It is not just richer countries that are becoming cashless. Many countries in the developing world have found that mobile phones are perfect for transferring money. For example, in Kenya, only a few people have a bank account, but lots of Kenyans have a mobile phone. Now people can pay for things in shops, pay their bills and their children’s school fees, and receive their salary with their phones. Kenya has led a revolution in mobile banking.
(Adapted from Navigate)
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Bank Notes Then Cash?
B. Why Once Again Sweden?
C. The End of Cash?
D. A New Currency Unit for Kenya?

Question 40: According to the passage, in a cashless society, ______.
A. people will travel more by bus
B. elderly people will become more active
C. you will feel much safer
D. businesses will earn more money

Question 41: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the problems
B. all Swedes
C. small businesses
D. elderly people

Question 42: The word revolution in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. an important change
B. an unsuccessful attempt
C. a frequent movement
D. a violent struggle

Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. People in Sweden can pay for bus tickets by mobile phone.
B. Few people in Kenya own a mobile phone.
C. People in Kenya can pay school fees with their phones.
D. Sweden may be among the first countries to stop using cash.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
        It is often held that technology in general does little to help family relationships as, in many cases, family members are more interested in their smartphones and the TV than they are in each other. Before smartphones, the TV was blamed the most for breakdowns in communication between parents and children. It was argued that ‘the box’ stopped them from talking to each other, and clashes between family members over what programmes to watch created barriers and caused resentment.
        However, TV programmes can be both informative and entertaining. They often provide topics for family members to discuss, bringing them closer together rather than driving them further apart. What is more, twenty-first century families do not need to watch the same programme at the same time. The fact that people can watch what they want results in more time for families to be together rather than less.
        The smartphone has taken over from the TV as the major reason for a lack of communication between family members. Parents often do not see why their children spend so much time online and fail to see the importance of having an online identity while most teens feel their online image is part of who they are. They often criticise the amount of time their children spend online rather than attempting to understand why they do it. In fact, adults are often not very good examples themselves. Who has not witnessed a table at a restaurant where all the family members are silently focused on their mobile devices?
        Broadly speaking, smartphones do have some negative effects on family relationships. This technology is still relatively new, so many families have not yet learned how to deal with it. Parents and children should discuss how they use technology to help them all make the most of technology instead of blaming it for their problems.
(Adapted from High Note)
Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. How to Deal with Generation Gap in the Family
B. How Technology Affects Family Relationships
C. Negative Impacts of Technology on Schoolchildren
D. TV and Smartphone as Means of Communication
Question 45: The word clashes in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. chances
B. benefits
C. arguments
D. worries
Question 46: According to paragraph 1, the TV ______
A. makes family members become more interested in each other.
B. is often believed to be greatly helpful in fostering family bonds.
C. encouraged more communication among family members.
D. was claimed to prevent parents from conversing with children.
Question 47: The word them in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. family members
B. barriers
C. topics
D. TV programmes
Question 48: The word negative in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. positive
B. minimal
C. interesting
D. harmful
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The lack of communication in the family is now mostly blamed on the TV.
B. The majority of teenagers regard their online image as important to their identity.
C. The TV can serve as a source of both information and entertainment.
D. Parents and children should work on how to utilise technology to their advantage.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most families prefer talking to one another to using smartphones in restaurants.
B. Twenty-first century families are generally not in favor of watching television together.
C. Parents in the past did not criticise their children for watching too much television.
D. A lot of families are still incapable of making good use of smartphones.

2. Đáp án đề minh họa môn Anh kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia:

3. Hướng dẫn cách học môn tiếng Anh để đạt điểm cao trong kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia:

Môn Tiếng Anh là một trong những môn thi quan trọng trong kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia. Để đạt điểm cao trong môn này, bạn cần có một phương pháp học tập hiệu quả và phù hợp với khả năng của bản thân. Dưới đây là một số hướng dẫn chi tiết cách học môn Tiếng Anh để bạn có thể chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi.

– Xác định trình độ và mục tiêu học tập của bản thân. Bạn cần biết rõ trình độ hiện tại của mình là ở mức nào, yếu nhất ở kỹ năng nào, và mong muốn đạt được điểm số bao nhiêu trong kỳ thi. Từ đó, có thể lập ra kế hoạch học tập phù hợp với thời gian và năng lực của mình.

– Nâng cao kiến thức ngữ pháp và từ vựng. Đây là hai yếu tố cơ bản và quan trọng nhất trong việc học Tiếng Anh. Cần học thuộc các quy tắc ngữ pháp, cách sử dụng các thì, cấu trúc câu, và các loại từ trong Tiếng Anh. Bên cạnh đó, nâng cao vốn từ vựng của mình bằng cách đọc nhiều sách báo, nghe nhiều bài hát, xem nhiều phim ảnh, và sử dụng các ứng dụng hay trang web hỗ trợ học từ vựng.

– Luyện tập các kỹ năng nghe, nói, đọc, viết. Bạn cần luyện tập thường xuyên các kỹ năng này để có thể tự tin và thành thạo trong việc giao tiếp bằng Tiếng Anh. Có thể luyện nghe bằng cách nghe các bài giảng, podcast, hoặc các đoạn hội thoại trong Tiếng Anh hoặcluyện nói bằng cách giao lưu với bạn bè, gia đình, hoặc giáo viên bằng Tiếng Anh, hoặc tham gia các câu lạc bộ Tiếng Anh,luyện đọc bằng cách đọc các bài đọc hiểu, truyện ngắn, hoặc sách Tiếng Anh và luyện viết bằng cách viết các bài luận, nhật ký, hoặc email bằng Tiếng Anh.

– Ôn luyện theo đề thi THPT Quốc gia. Làm quen với cấu trúc và nội dung của đề thi THPT Quốc gia để có thể chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kỳ thi. Có thể tìm kiếm và làm các đề thi mẫu trên mạng, hoặc tham gia các khóa học ôn thi chuyên sâu. Bạn cũng cần kiểm tra lại kiến thức và kỹ năng của mình sau mỗi lần làm đề thi để biết được điểm yếu và điểm mạnh của mình.

– Duy trì sự kiên trì và tích cực trong việc học tập. Bạn không nên chủ quan hay nản chí khi gặp khó khăn trong việc học Tiếng Anh. Cần duy trì sự kiên trì và tích cực để vượt qua các thử thách và cải thiện bản thân, có một thái độ học tập tích cực, không chỉ học để thi, mà còn học để nâng cao khả năng giao tiếp và mở rộng tầm nhìn của mình.