350 câu trắc nghiệm Đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh có đáp án chuẩn

1. Các câu trắc nghiệm Đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh có đáp án chuẩn hay nhất:

Exercise 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.

In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.

Question 1: According to the passage, Porter’s Father was ___________.

A. the person who gave him a life-long love of books

B. a medical doctor

C. a licensed pharmacist

D. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas

Đáp án: B

Question 2: Why did the author write the passage?

A. to outline the career of a famous American

B. because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer

C. because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer

D. to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing

Đáp án: A

Question 3: The word “imprisonment” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _________.

A. captivity        B. escape       C. insult       D. punishment

Đáp án: A

Question 4: What is the passage primarily about?

A. The life and career of William Sydney Porter.

B. The way to adopt a nickname.

C. O.Henry’s influence on American literature.

D. The adventures of O.Henry.

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The author implies which of the following is true?

A. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.

B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.

C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.

D. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years.

Đáp án: C

Question 6: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?

A. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist

B. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”

C. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin

D. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died

Đáp án: C

Question 7: The word “pseudonym” in the passage refers to ___________.

A. William Sydney Porter        

B. O. Henry

C. Athol Estes        

D. the Aunt Lina

Đáp án: B

Exercise 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of Webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a Webmaster to perform.

To specify the job description of a Webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software the website the Webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job description.

Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media”.

The term “new media” is difficult to define because it compasses a constantly growing set of new technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games, virtual reality, and computer artistry.

Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to such online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country.

How much can a person make in these kinds of careers? As with many questions related to today’s evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with Internet skills salaries well over $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to make between $40,000 to $70,000 a year.

Question 1: Which of the following is true about the job of freelance writers?

A. They may work with others in the company.

B. It is considered a “content” job.

C. They manage hardware and software.

D. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.

Question 2: The word “vary” in paragraph 6 can be best replaced by ___________.

A. decrease        

B. change        

C. differ        

D. increase

Đáp án: C

Question 3: It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.

A. only skilled workers make good money

B. online workers can work full-time online.

C. it is easy to become a webmaster

D. workers with limited computer skills can not work online.

Đáp án: B

Question 4: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?

A. They never work independently.

B. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.

C. They require a minimal level of expertise.

D. They do not support software products.

Đáp án: C

Question 5: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To inform people about the tasks and the roles of a webmaster.

B. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.

C. To inform people about the computer industry.

D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.

Đáp án: B

Question 6: According to the passage, all of the followings are TRUE except ___________.

A. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.

B. Online workers can not free themselves from the office.

C. “New media” is not easy to define.

D. There are online jobs available for workers with minimal computer skills.

Đáp án: B

Question 7: Which of the followings is not mentioned as part of the “new media”?

A. Internet technology        

B. writing skills        

C. websites        

D. video games

Question 8: The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.

A. name        

B. discover        

C. encounter        

D. estimate

Đáp án: A

Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it, and that the easiest way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the North American Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and made into cakes), the Scandinavians made stockfish and the Arabs dried dates and apricots.

All foods contain water – cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.

Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean countries, and also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.

Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110oC at entry to about 45oC at exit. This is the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.

Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.

Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.

Question 1: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Advantages of dried foods.        

B. Water: the main component of food.

C. Mechanization of drying foods.        

D. Different methods of drying foods.

Đáp án: D

Question 2: The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.

A. expose foods to sun and wind        

B. remove moisture from foods

C. produce pemmican        

D. moisten foods

Đáp án: B

Question 3: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. reduced considerably        B. put a tick

C. examined carefully        D. motivated to develop

Đáp án: A

Question 4: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______.

A. remove their wax coating        

B. kill off bacteria

C. maintain their color        

D. crack their skin

Đáp án: C

Question 5: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.

A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards

B. dipping them in an alkaline solution

C. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through

D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder

Đáp án: C

Question 6: What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?

A. Vegetables       

B. Foods        

C. Things        

D. Chambers

Đáp án: D

Question 7: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be ______.

A. small flakes       

B. fine powder        

C. dried soup        

D. recognizable pieces

Đáp án: A

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruits and vegetables.

B. Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.

C. Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.

D. People in India began to use drying methods centuries ago.

Đáp án: D

Exercise 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

As viewed from space, Earth’s distinguishing characteristics are its blue waters and white clouds. Enveloped by an ocean of air consisting of 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, the planet is the only one in our solar system known to harbor life. Circling the Sun at an average distance of 149 million kilometers (93 million miles), Earth is the third planet from the Sun and the fifth largest planet in the solar system.

Our planet’s rapid spin and molten nickel-iron core give rise to an extensive magnetic field which, coupled the atmosphere, shields us from nearly all of the harmful radiation coming from the Sun and other stars. Earth’s atmosphere protects us from meteors as well, most of which burn up in the Earth’s atmosphere before they can strike the surface. The planet active geological processes have left no evidence of the ancient pelting it almost certainly received soon after it formed about 4.6 billion years ago. The Earth has a single natural satellite – the moon.

Question 1: Approximately how much of the Earth’s atmosphere is nitrogen?

A. One-fourth     

B. One-half     

C. Three-fourths     

D. All of it

Đáp án: C

Question 2: Which of the following helps to create the Earth’s magnetic fields?

A. Its blue waters     

B. Its nitrogen atmosphere

C. Its molten metal core     

D. The moon

Đáp án: C

Question 3: What two factors help protect the Earth from radiation?

A. Magnetic field and atmosphere     

B. Blue waters and white clouds

C. Rapid spin and molten nickel-iron core     

D. The Sun and the Moon

Đáp án: A

Question 4: The word consisting most nearly means ________.

A. hardening     

B. withholding     

C. containing     

D. shortening

Đáp án: C

Question 5: The main idea of this passage is that ________.

A. Earth is predominantly water.

B. There are life-supporting characteristics on Eart

C. Earth is the only planet with a moon

D. Earth has no common characteristics with other planets

Đáp án: B

Question 6: The word distinguishing as it is used in this selection means ________.

A. elevating in nature

B. characteristics like all other planets

C. devastating in nature

D. characteristics that set it apart from other planets

Đáp án: D

Question 7: It’s probable that the next paragraph would discuss ________.

A. people on planets    

B. the solar system as a whole

C. rings around Saturn     

D. the Earth’s natural satellite – the moon

Đáp án: D

Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The White House, the official home of the United States president, was not built in time for George Washington to live in it. It was begun in 1792 and was ready for its first inhabitants. President and Mrs.John Adams, who moved in on November 1, 1800. When the Adamses moved in, the White House was not yet complete, and the Adamses suffered many inconveniences; for example, the main staircase was incomplete, which hindered movement from floor to floor, and the future laundry yard was merely a pool of mud, so wet laundry was hung in the unfinished East Room to dry. Thomas Jefferson, the third president, improved the comfort of the White House in many respects and added new architectural features such as the terraces on the east and west ends.

When the British forces burned the White House on August 24, 1814, President Madison was forced to leave.All the remained after the fire was the exterior walls, the interior was completely destroyed. It was not until December of 1817 that the following president, James Monroe, was able to move into a rebuilt residence. Since then, the White House has continued to be modified but has been continuously occupied by each succeeding U.S president.

Question 1: Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this text?

A. George Washington’s life in the White House.

B. The Early History of the White House.

C. The burning of the White House.

D. Presidential Policies of Early U.S.Presidents.

Đáp án: B

Question 2: Why did George Washington not live in the White House?

A. It had been burned by the British.

B. He did not like the architectural features.

C. He did not want to suffer the inconveniences that the Adamses had suffered.

D. Construction had not yet been completed.

Đáp án: D

Question 3: The word “inhabitants” in line 2 is closest meaning to:

A. modifications     

B. moves     

C. celebrations     

D. residents

Đáp án: D

Question 4: It can be inferred from the passage that John Adams was:

A. the first president of the United States.

B. the second president of the United States.

C. the third president of the United States.

D. the fourth president of the United States.

Đáp án: B

Question 5: What of the White House was not yet complete when the Adamses moved in?

A. main staircase     

B. laundry yard    

C. pool     

D. A and B

Đáp án: D

Question 6: The word “forces” in line 9 could best be replaced by:

A. military     

B. effort     

C. power     

D. energy

Đáp án: A

Question 7: According to the passage, when James Monroe came to the White House, it had been

A. repressed     

B. reconstructed     

C. relocated     

D. reserved

Đáp án: B

Question 8: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses:

A. the details of the destruction of the White House by the British

B. James Monroe’s policies as presidents.

C. modifications by presidents who followed.

D. other presidents who were unable to occupy the White House.

Đáp án: C

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Family life in the United States is changing. Thirty or forty years ago, the wife was called a “housewife”. She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He was usually out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And he did not see the children very much, except on weekends.

These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the children all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening cooking dinner and cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is going to do the housework now? Who is going to take care of the children?

Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband always cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and the husband cooks dinner on other nights.

Then there is a question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents often are too far away to help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. The help may be a babysister or a day-care center. The problem with this kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for couples with jobs that pay well.

Parents may get another kind of help from the companies they work for. Many companies now let people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend more time with their children. Some husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children. For these men there is a new word: They are called “househusband”. In the United States more ans more men are becoming househusband every year.

These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.

Question 1: These changes in the Amercan home may ______________

A. not happen.     

B. not change the children at all.

C. help families.     

D. cause problems for a marriage.

Đáp án: C

Question 2: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that__________.

A. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center.

B. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care.

C. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center.

D. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way.

Đáp án: A

Question 3: Sixty years ago, most women ____________.

A. had no children.     

B. were housewives.

C. went out to work.     

D. did not do much housework.

Đáp án: B

Question 4: Nowadays there are ____________.

A. more and more women staying with the children all day.

B. more work outside the home before.

C. more housewives than before.

D. more women going out to work than before.

Đáp án: D

Question 5: This article is about ________.

A. how more American women are working.     

B. how family life in America is changing.

C. American men as househusbands.    

D. housewives in America.

Đáp án: B

Question 6: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to _______________.

A. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers.

B. husbands who stop working to stay with the children.

C. parents who work part-time.

D. fathers who spend more time with their children

Đáp án: B

Question 7: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. washing and ironing.     

B. tidying up.

C. cooking and washing up.     

D. shopping.

Đáp án: A

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Martin Luther King, Jf., is well- known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches, among which is his moving “I have a dream” speech. But fewer people know much about King’s childhood.

M.L, as he was called, was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L was born. His grandfather allowed the house to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in the atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.

M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventfully. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all black schools in a black neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other businesses and services. Even in the face of Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a huge barrier keeping black Atlantans from mingling with whites.

Question 1: What is the passage mainly about?

A. The prejudice that existed in Atlanta.     

B. M.L.’s grandfather

C. Martin Luther King’s childhood.     

D. The neighborhood King grew up in

Đáp án: C

Question 2: When was M.L. born?

A. in 1909     

B. in 1929

C. in 1949     

D. 20 years after his parents had met.

Đáp án: B

Question 3: What is Martin Luthur King well- known for?

A. His publications.     

B. His neighborhood.

C. His childhood.     

D. His work in civil rights.

Đáp án: D

Question 4: According to the author, M.L. _______.

A. had a difficult childhood.     

B. was a good musician as a child

C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak.     

D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta.

Đáp án: D

Question 5: Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. Auburn was a commercial areas.

B. M.L.’s grandfather built their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909.

C. M. L. grew up in a rich, black neighborhood.

D. M.L.’s childhood was uneventful.

Đáp án: B

Question 6: According to the author, blacks in King’s neighborhood were involved in all the following businesses and services EXCEPT

A. dentistry     

B. medicine     

C. law     

D. banking

Đáp án: A

Question 7: M.L. was _______ by the atmosphere in which he grew up.

A. not affected at all     

B. doubted     

C. certainly influenced     

D. prejudiced

Đáp án: C

Exercise 8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.

Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, “An Economical Project.” It is said that Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were expensive at the time.

In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone, including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October.

The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on “the mean astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich” (England). In 1919, this act was repealed.

President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).

Question 1: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to

A. Franklin’s idea of daylight saving    

B. Franklin’s first conception

C. Franklin’s first official tenure     

D. Franklin’s delegation

Đáp án: A

Question 2: The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. imperative     

B. approved     

C. deficient     

D. peculiar

Đáp án: A

Question 3: Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s?

A. Sir Robert Pearce

B. television and radio broadcasting companies

C. farmers

D. the U.S. Congress

Đáp án: C

Question 4: The word “devised” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

A. divided     

B. invented     

C. ordered    

D. adapted

Đáp án: B

Question 5: Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation?

A. It was created by President Richard Nixon.

B. It set standards for DST throughout the world.

C. It constructed the Uniform Time Act.

D. It oversees all time laws in the United States.

Đáp án: D

Question 6: The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for

A. extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation

B. preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent

C. instituting five time zones in the United States

D. conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws

Đáp án: A

Question 7: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act

B. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time

C. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time

D. Daylight Saving Time in the United States

Đáp án: D

Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frame of an object, each slightly different than the proceeding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an originator.

In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final sequences of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that defines the objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques from three-dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures.

High-tech computer animation for film involves very expensive computer systems along with special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the image for display on the screen.

A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display screen, but for the highest quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer computers the positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is replaced for the next frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and time – consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple computer-generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution, realistic-looking images.

Question 1: Which of the following statement is supported by the passage?

A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.

B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.

C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.

D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.

Đáp án: D. 

Question 2: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to ______.

A. formulas     

B. objects     

C. numbers     

D. database

Đáp án: B.

A. formulas: công thức    C. numbers: các con số     D. database: cơ sở dữ liệu

Question 3: According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to .

A. add color to the images     

B. expose several frames at the same time

C. store individual images     

D. create new frames

Đáp án: C.

Question 4: According to the passage, the positions and colors of the figures in high-tech animation are determined by .

A. drawing several versions

B. enlarging one frame at a lime

C. analyzing the sequence from different angles

D. using computer calculations

Đáp án: D.

Question 5: The word “captures” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. separates     

B. registers     

C. describes     

D. numbers

Đáp án: A.

Question 6: The word “Once” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. before     

B. since     

C. after     

D. while

Đáp án: C.

Question 7: According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion?

A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawiings.

B. They hand-draw successive frames.

C. They calculate high-resolutions images.

D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.

Đáp án: A.

Question 8: The word “task” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to .

A. possibility     

B. position     

C. time     

D. job

Đáp án: A.

Exercise 10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

They call Jamaica the “Island in the sun” and that is my memory of it. Of sunshine, warmth and abundant fruit that was growing everywhere, and of love. There were two sisters ahead of me in the family, and though of course I didn’t know it, there was an exciting talk of emigration, possibly to Canada but more usually to England, the land of opportunity. I guess that plans were already being made when I was born, for a year or so later my Dad left for London. Two years after that my mum went as well and my sisters and I were left in the care of my grandmother.

Emigrating to better yourself was a dream for most Jamaicans, a dream many were determined to fulfill. Families were close and grandmothers were an important part of the family. So, when the mass emigrations began, it seemed perfectly right and natural for them to take over the running of families left behind.

Grandmothers are often strict, but usually also spoil you. She ran the family like a military operation: each of us, no matter how young, had our tasks. Every morning, before we went to school, we all had to take a bucket appropriate to our size and run a relay from the communal tap to the barrels until they are full. My sisters had to sweep the yard before they went to school. My grandmother would give orders to the eldest and these were passed down- as I got older I found this particularly annoying! But I can tell you, no one avoided their duties.

My Dad came over from England to see how we were getting on . He talked to us about the new country, about snow, about the huge city, and we all wanted to know more, to see what it was like. I didn’t know it at that time., but he had come to prepare us for the move to England. Six months later my grandmother told me that I was going to join my parents and that she, too, was emigrating.

London was strange and disappointing. There was no gold on the pavements, as the stories in Jaimaica had indicated. The roads were busy, the buildings were grey and dull, with many tall, high-rise blocks. It was totally unlike Jamaica, the houses all small and packed close together. In my grandmother’s house I had a big bedroom, here I had to share.

Then came the biggest shock: snow. While flakes came out of the sky and Dad smiled, pointed and said: “That’s snow!” I rushed outside, looked up and opened my mouth to let the flakes drop in. The snow settled on my tongue and it was so cold that I cried. My toes lost all feeling. As my shoes and socks got wet and frozen, there came an excruciating pain and I cried with the intensity of it. I didn’t know what was happening to me.

Question 1: The writer says that when he was very young ________.

A. he was upset because his parents left

B. he was very keen to go to England

C. his parents had decided to leave

D. his parents changed their plans

Đáp án: C

Question 2: According to the writer, many people from Jamaica at that time ________.

A. wanted to be free from responsibility

B. wanted to improve their standard of living

C. had ambitions that were unrealistic

D. dislike the country they came from

Đáp án: D

Question 3: What does “this” in the third paragraph refer t

A. being told what to do by his sisters     

B. having to sweep the yard before school

C. having to do duties he found difficult     

D. being given orders by his grandmother

Đáp án: A

Question 4: What happened when the writer’s father came?

A. His father didn’t tell him why he had come

B. He didn’t know how to react to his father

C. His father told him things that were untrue

D. He felt eager about what his father told him

Đáp án: A

Question 5: When the writer first went to London, he was disappointed because ________.

A. it was smaller than he expected     

B. he had been given a false impression of it

C. he had to spend a lot of time on his own     

D. his new surroundings frightened him

Đáp án: B

Question 6: The word “excruciating” in the last paragraph means ________.

A. painful     

B. rather painful     

C. extremely painful     

D. painless

Đáp án: C

Question 7: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A. From Sun to Snow     

B. A strange childhood

C. Hard times     

D. Too many changes

Đáp án: C

2. Các câu trắc nghiệm Đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh có đáp án chi tiết:

Exercise 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is, the greater delight he will find in reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are very difficult and that if philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure. But this is not true. The mathematician finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as the school boy in an adventure story. For both, it is a play of the imagination, a mental recreation and exercise.

The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all kinds of reading. But different types of books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of popularity is novel-reading. Novels contain pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations, and give us an opportunity of escaping into a new world very much like our world and yet different from it. Here we seem to live a new life, and the experience of this new life gives us a thrill of pleasure.

Next in order of popularity are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These tell us tales of places we have not seen and of great men in whom we are interested. Some of these books are as wonderful as novels, and they have an added value that they are true. Such books give us knowledge, and we also find immense pleasure in knowing details of lands we have not seen and of great men we have only heard of.R

Reading is one of the greatest enjoyments of life. To book-lovers, nothing is more fascinating than a favorite book. And, the ordinary educated man who is interested and absorbed in his daily occupation wants to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of books for recreation and refreshment.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Different types of books     

B. Different kinds of reading

C. Reading as an exercise for the brain     

D. Reading as a pleasurable activity

Đáp án: D

Question 2: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are difficult.

B. Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a mathematician.

C. Philosophers and scientists do not read for pleasure.

D. A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in reading.

Đáp án: C

Question 3: The word “derived” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. differed     

B. established     

C. bought     

D. obtaine

Đáp án: D

Question 4: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. a new life     

B. our world     

C. an opportunity     

D. a thrill of pleasure

Đáp án: B

Question 5: The word “immense” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. great     

B. limited     

C. personal     

D. controlled

Đáp án: A

Question 6: According to the passage, travel books, biographies and memoirs ______.

A. are wonderful novels     

B. tell stories of well-known places

C. are less popular than novels     

D. are more valuable than novels

Đáp án: C

Question 7: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the most fascinating to booklovers?

A. A daily occupation     

B. An ordinary educated man

C. The wonderland     

D. A favorite book

Đáp án: D

Exercise 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The system of higher education had its origin in Europe in the Middle Ages, when the first universities were established. In modern times, the nature of higher education around the world, to some extent, has been determined by the models of influential countries such as France and Germany.

Both France and Germany have systems of higher education that are basically administered by state agencies. Entrance requirements for students are also similar in both countries. In France, an examination called the baccalauréat is given at the end of secondary education. Higher education in France is free and open to all students who have passed this baccalauréat. Success in this examination allows students to continue their higher education for another three or four years until they have attained the first university degree called a licence in France.

Basic differences, however, distinguish these two countries’ systems. French educational districts, called académies, are under the direction of a rector, an appointee of the national government who is also in charge of universities in each district. The uniformity in curriculum throughout the country leaves each university with little to distinguish itself. Hence, many students prefer to go to Paris, where there are better accommodations and more cultural amenities for them. Another difference is the existence in France of prestigious higher educational institutions known as grandes écoles, which provide advanced professional and technical training. Most of these schools are not affiliated with the universities, although they too recruit their students by giving competitive examinations to candidates. The grandes écoles provide rigorous training in all branches of applied science and technology, and their diplomas have a somewhat higher standing than the ordinary licence.

In Germany, the regional universities have autonomy in determining their curriculum under the direction of rectors elected from within. Students in Germany change universities according to their interests and the strengths of each university. In fact, it is a custom for students to attend two, three, or even four different universities in the course of their undergraduate studies, and the majority of professors at a particular university may have taught in four or five others. This high degree of mobility means that schemes of study and examination are marked by a freedom and individuality unknown in France.

France and Germany have greatly influenced higher education systems around the world. The French, either through colonial influence or the work of missionaries, introduced many aspects of their system in other countries. The German were the first to stress the importance of universities as research facilities, and they also created a sense of them as emblems of a national mind.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The nature of education around the world in modern times

B. Systems of higher education in France and Germany

C. The origin of higher education system in Europe

D. The influence of France and Germany on educational systems of other countries

Đáp án: B

Question 2: The word “uniformity” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. proximity     

B. discrepancy     

C. similarity     

D. uniqueness

Đáp án: C

Question 3: The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. schools     

B. universities     

C. examinations     

D. branches

Đáp án: A

Question 4: Which of the following about grandes écoles in France is NOT stated in paragraph 3?

A. Most of them have no connection with universities.

B. They have a reputation for advanced professional and technical training.

C. Their degrees are better recognized than those provided by universities.

D. They offer better accommodations and facilities than universities.

Đáp án: D

Question 5: According to the passage, a regional university rector in Germany is elected by _____.

A. the staff of the university     

B. the national government officials

C. the regional government officials     

D. the staff of other universities

Đáp án: A

Question 6: According to paragraph 4, what makes it possible for students in Germany to attend different universities during their undergraduate studies?

A. The university staff have become far more mobile and occupied.

B. The university’s training programs offer greater flexibility and freedom of choice.

C. University tuition fees are kept at an affordable level for all students.

D. Entry requirements to universities in Germany are made less demanding.

Đáp án: B

Question 7: The word “emblems” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. representatives     

B. directions     

C. structures     

D. delegates

Đáp án: A

Question 8: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Studying in France and Germany is a good choice for people of all ages and nationalities.

B. It normally takes longer to complete a university course in France than in Germany.

C. Universities in Germany can govern themselves more effectively than those in France.

D. The level of decentralization of higher education is greater in Germany than in France.

Đáp án: D

Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child’s baby teeth fall out. In Korea, for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.

Birds aren’t the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child’s lost tooth in a piece of meat and feed it to a dog.

The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth. The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!

Question 1: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Presents for young children’s lost teeth     

B. Animals eating children’s lost teeth

C. Customs concerning children’s new teeth     

D. Traditions concerning children’s lost teeth

Đáp án: D

Question 2: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. houses’     

B. children’s     

C. roofs’     

D. countries’

Đáp án: B

Question 3: According to the passage, where is a child’s lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?

A. In Mongolia     

B. In Mexico and Spain

C. In Japan and Vietnam     

D. In Korea

Đáp án: B

Question 4: According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child’s lost tooth to a dog because ______.

A. they believe that this will make their child’s new tooth good and strong

B. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth

C. they know that dogs are very responsible animals

D. they think dogs like eating children’s teeth

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The word “origins” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. countries     

B. stories     

C. beginnings     

D. families

Đáp án: C

Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of tooth giving in the West?

A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.

B. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.

C. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.

D. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.

Đáp án: A

Question 7: The phrase “the wee hours” in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time _____.

A. early in the evening     

B. late in the morning

C. long before bedtime     

D. soon after midnight

Đáp án: D

Exercise 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one another for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain reaction that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food chain. For example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential. However, there may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss can threaten the survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction can have a ripple effect that spreads throughout nature.

In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals that prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals have been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial value. Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and animals with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-native species to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the environment. The combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease or low birthrates has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance of survival without human help.

As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights, recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful species? Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is extinction an inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are some difficult questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Humans and endangered species     

B. The importance of living organisms

C. Measures to protect endangered species     

D. Causes of animal extinction

Đáp án: A

Question 2: The word “inconsequential” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. unimportant     

B. unavoidable     

C. unexpected     

D. unrecognizable

Đáp án: A

Question 3: Which of the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?

A. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.

B. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.

C. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.

D. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.

Đáp án: C

Question 4: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. human-related effects     

B. some species

C. low birthrates     

D. natural obstacles

Đáp án: B

Question 5: In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.

A. a kind of harmless animals     

B. an achievement of human beings

C. a harmful factor to the environment     

D. a kind of useful plants

Đáp án: C

Question 6: The word “perish” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. develop     

B. complete     

C. remain     

D. disappear

Đáp án: D

Question 7: According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.

B. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.

C. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.

D. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.

Đáp án C

Giải thích: Chúng ta thấy câu C sai luôn khi đọc đến dòng 4, dòng 5 của đoạn 2.

Question 8: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.

B. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.

C. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.

D. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains

Đáp án: D

Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Becoming a teacher demands not only knowledge in an academic field but also a personal commitment to lifelong learning, and enthusiasm for sharing knowledge with other people. To become one of those noble educators in the USA, one has to satisfy several basic requirements.

First and foremost, it is a prerequisite to have bachelor’s degree in education. In the event that a candidate already has a bachelor’s degree in another field, a teacher preparation program is needed. But that is not all. Almost every school in the USA understands that real classroom teaching experience is a vital part of a teacher’s training. Before taking over a class, a person typically needs to complete a training program, including working as a supervised student teacher.

People who want to become university teachers need master’s degrees. Getting a master’s degree is a necessity, but if it is gained too early, there may be concerns that the candidate lacks the real-world experience to go with it. In fact, very few schools want to hire novices with little or no classroom experience and even if they are accepted, they are usually ill-paid. One wise solution to the issue is for future post graduates to start working as teachers before going on to gain their master’s degree.

Besides knowledge and experience, certain personal qualities are also required. A teacher should be positive, prepared, focused, and most importantly, patient. Being a teacher involves being aware of the fact that learning sometimes be hard work, even for the most motivated students. Also, teaching can at times be tiring and frustrating, so teaching candidates have to practice being patient with themselves. In short, as in other careers, teaching requires a combination of qualifications, experience, and personal qualities. Teaching candidates meeting mandatory requirements are always in demand in the USA.

Question 1: The text is mainly about ___________________.

A. the importance of teachers.

B. the advantages and disadvantages of being a teacher in the USA.

C. the difference of teaching career.

D. the basic requirements of being a teacher in the USA.

Đáp án: D

Question 2: According to the text, future post graduates should start working as teachers _______

A. after gaining their master’s degree.

B. before studying for their master’s degree

C. during the time they are studying for their master’s degree.

D. before studying for their bachelor’s degree.

Đáp án: B

Question 3: The word “vital” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______

A. very useless     

B. very easy     

C. very important     

D. very interesting

Đáp án: C

Question 4: According to the text, teaching requires a combination of many things EXCEPT ________.

A. qualifications     

B. personal qualities     

C. experience     

D. appearance

Đáp án: D

Question 5: According to the text, the most important quality of a teacher is _______.

A. being patient     

B. being to work hard     

C. being prepared     

D. being a role model

Đáp án: A

Question 6: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.

A. postgraduates     

B. novices     

C. schools     

D. teachers

Đáp án: B

Question 7: According to the text, all of the following sentences are true EXCEPT _____.

A. Those who want to become university teachers need master’s degrees.

B. A teachers needs to be aware of the fact that learning can sometimes be hard work.

C. A great number of schools in the USA want to hire novices with little or no classroom experience.

D. In the USA, before one takes over a class, a training program is typically necessary to be completed.

Đáp án: C

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that massproduced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.

Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became afixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.

Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Causes of food spoilage.

B. Commercial production of ice.

C. Population movements in the nineteenth century.

D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet.

Đáp án: D

Question 2: The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to ________ .

A. a particular time of year     

B. a kind of weather

C. an official schedule     

D. a method of flavoring

Đáp án: A

Question 3: During the 1860’s, canned food products were _________ .

A. unavailable in rural areas     

B. available in limited quantities

C. shipped in refrigerator cars     

D. a staple part of the American diet.

Đáp án: B

Question 4: The word ”them” in line 12 refers to _________ .

A. refrigerator cars     

B. growers     

C. perishables     

D. distances

Đáp án: C

Question 5: The word ”fixture” in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________ .

A. commonplace object     

B. substance

C. luxury item     

D. mechanical device

Đáp án: A

Question 6: The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice _________ .

A. increased in cost     

B. occurred only in the summer

C. decreased in number     

D. were on an irregular schedule

Đáp án: C

Question 7: The word “Nevertheless” in line 19 is closest meaning to _________ .

A. occasionally     

B. however     

C. therefore     

D. therefore

Đáp án: B

Question 8: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Drying     

B. Chemical additives

C. Canning     

D. Cold storage

Đáp án: B

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

On March 15, Dunes View Middle School held a contest for school bands. Student bands tried out for the opportunity to perform at the school picnic, which will be held at the end of June. The winner of the contest was the band called Four Square. “We’re very proud that we won the contest and are excited to perform at the picnic,” says Peter Zandt, who plays the guitar in the band. “And since we hope to perform someday at other local places, like restaurants and parks, this will be a great first step.”

The contest was the creation of music teacher Mr. Lopez and drama teacher Ms. Cho. The two thought of the idea while discussing recent years’ school picnics. “The picnic is one of the biggest events of the year, but it has become a bit formulaic ,” said Ms. Cho. “The activities are the same every year. We thought that a performance by a student band would make the school picnic more interesting and fun.” Mr. Lopez, Ms. Cho, and three other teachers judged the contest, which took place in the gym. Eight student bands signed up to audition. The bands varied in their musical forms: there were several rock bands, a folk band, and even a jazz band. “I’m disappointed that my band didn’t win, but I think the judges made the right choice,” says student Marisol Varga, a member of the folk trio called The Bell Girls. “Four Square is really good.” To see if the bands could present a wide range of musical skills, the teachers asked them each to prepare two songs: one song with original words, and another in which students played instrumental music only. The judges finally chose the band Four Square as the winner of the contest. Four Square is a rock band with an unusual twist: it includes a violin player! The members of Four Square write their own songs and practice three times a week after school. Students and teachers agreed that the band competition was a big success. All are looking forward to the school picnic in June.

Question 1: Which would be the most appropriate headline for the article?

A. Famous Band Visits School     

B. Teachers Give Music Lessons

C. Students Have Fun at School Picnic     

D. School Holds Student Band Contest

Đáp án: D

Question 2: What is probably true about school picnics in recent years?

A. They were held in March.     

B. They were not very exciting.

C. They were very hard to organize.     

D. They included musical performances

Đáp án: B

Question 3: The word formulaic is closest in meaning to___________.

A. expensive     

B. uncertain     

C. long     

D. dull

Đáp án: D

Question 4: What type of band is NOT mentioned in the article?

A. Pop     

B. Jazz     

C. Folk     

D. Rock

Đáp án: A

Question 5: Why did the teachers ask each band to play two songs?

A. To decide which songs to play at the picnic

B. To see if the bands could play a variety of songs

C. To make sure the contest did not go on too long

D. To make the concert more enjoyable for students

Đáp án: B

Question 6: According to the article, what is unusual about the band Four Square?

A. It is named after a popular children’s game.

B. Its members practice several times a week.

C. It is a rock band with a violinist.

D. Its members all play guitar.

Đáp án: C

Question 7: According to the article, what does the band Four Square hope to do in the future?

A. Perform at the school picnic every year

B. Perform in many different places

C. Buy new instruments

D. Record an album

Đáp án: B

Question 8: Who will play music at the picnic this year?

A. Marisol Varga     

B. Mr. Lopez     

C. Peter Zandt     

D. Ms. Cho

Đáp án: C

Exercise 8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Dodder is an unusual and unwanted plant that attacks other plants. Except for its flowers, the plant looks like spaghetti noodles. Its almost leafless, thread–like stems hang down atop other plants that dodder needs to stay alive. Dodder does not produce its own food. Instead, it steals it from other plants. It feeds by sucking juices from the plant it is wrapped around, often making its host very weak or even killing it. Dodder can find other plants by their smell. When a dodder seedling starts growing, it follows the scent of plants it prefers, like tomato plants, potato plants, or other farm crops.

Unlike most plants that usually grow in the direction of light or warmth, a dodder plant will grow in the direction of, for example, tomato odor––if a tomato happens to be growing nearby.

However, a young dodder plant must find a host plant quickly. If it cannot catch a whiff of a potential host within a few days, it will dry up and disappear—even if there is plenty of water around. Once it finds a host, the young dodder plant will attach itself to it and start growing faster. At that point, the dodder plant will drop its root.

Dodder is thus a difficult weed to manage and a real headache for farmers. When it does get out of hand, dodder can greatly reduce a farmer’s harvest or even destroy crops completely. Before sowing their produce, farmers in warm parts of the world often check to make sure no unwanted dodder seeds have intermingled with their crop seeds. This is a good way to stop dodder plants from sneaking their way into a crop field.

Question 1: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. A new variety of farm crop

B. Plants that are harmful to humans

C. The special abilities of a dangerous plant

D. Recent improvements in farming methods

Đáp án: C

Question 2: Why does the author mention spaghetti?

A. To analyze the content of some food

B. To describe the shape of a dodder plant

C. To explain where the dodder plant came from

D. To argue that dodder plants can be used to make food

Đáp án: B

Question 3: The word it refers to___________.

A. host     

B. food     

C. plant     

D. dodder

Đáp án: B

Question 4: What causes dodder to grow in a particular direction?

A. Odor     

B. Light     

C. Water     

D. Temperature

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The expression catch a whiff is closest in meaning to________.

A. eat the seeds     

B. notice the smell    

C. find the location     

D. determine the size

Đáp án: B

Question 6: What will happen if a dodder plant starts growing where there are no other plants around?

A. It will soon die.     

B. It will grow deeper roots.

C. It will attract other plants.     

D. It will cover the entire area of soil.

Đáp án: A

Question 7: The expression get out of hand is closest in meaning to_________.

A. dry up and die     

B. change its color

C. become hard to find     

D. grow uncontrollably

Đáp án: D

Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one’s entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught.

For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 1: What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” (lines 2-3) ?

A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.

B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.

C. Summer school makes the school year too long.

D. All of life is an education.

Đáp án: D

Question 2: The word “bounds” in line 5 is closest in meaning to

A. rules     

B. experience     

C. limits    

D. exceptions

Đáp án: C

Question 3: The word “ integral” in line 13 is closest in meaning to

A. equitable     

B. profitable     

C. pleasant     

D. essential

Question 4: The word “they” in line 17 refers to

A. slices of reality     

B. similar textbooks     

C. boundaries     

D. seats

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The phrase “For example,” line 19, introduces a sentence that gives examples of

A. similar textbooks     

B. the results of schooling

C. the workings of a government     

D. the boundaries of classroom subjects

Đáp án: D

Question 6: The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.

B. Education systems need to be radically reformed

C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

D. Education involves many years of professional training.

Đáp án: C

Question 7: The passage is organized by

A. listing and discussing several educational problems

B. contrasting the meanings of two related words

C. narrating a story about excellent teachers

D. giving examples of different kinds of schools

Đáp án: B

Exercise 10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Orchids are unique in having the most highly developed of all blossoms, in which the usual male and female reproductive organs are fused in a single structure called the column. The column is designed so that a single pollination will fertilize hundreds of thousands, and in some cases millions, of seeds, so microscopic and light they are easily carried by the breeze. Surrounding the column are three sepals and three petals, sometimes easily recognizable as such, often distorted into gorgeous, weird, but always functional shapes. The most noticeable of the petals is called the labellum, or lip. It is often dramatically marked as an unmistakable landing strip to attract the specific insect the orchid has chosen as its pollinator. To lure their pollinators from afar, orchids use appropriately intriguing shapes, colors, and scents. At least 50 different aromatic compounds have been analyzed in the orchid family, each blended to attract one, or at most a few, species of insects or birds. Some orchids even change their scents to interest different insects at different times.

Once the right insect has been attracted, some orchids present all sorts of one-way obstacle courses to make sure it does not leave until pollen has been accurately placed or removed. By such ingenious adaptations to specific pollinators, orchids have avoided the hazards of rampant crossbreeding in the wild, assuring the survival of species as discrete identities. At the same time they have made themselves irresistible to collectors.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Birds     

B. Insects     

C. Flowers     

D. Perfume

Đáp án: C

Question 2: The orchid is unique because of

A. the habitat in which it lives

B. the structure of its blossom

C. the variety of products that can be made from it

D. the length of its life

Đáp án: B

Question 3: The word “fused” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

A. combined     

B. hidden     

C. fertilized     

D. produced

Đáp án: A

Question 4: How many orchid seeds are typically pollinated at one time?

A. 200     

B. 2,000     

C. 20,000     

D. 200,000

Đáp án: D

Question 5: Which of the following is a kind of petal?

A. The column     

B. The sepal     

C. The stem     

D. The labellum

Đáp án: D

Question 6: The “labellum” (line 7) is most comparable to

A. a microscope     

B. an obstacle course     

C. an airport runway     

D. a racetrack

Question 7: The word “their” in line 12 refers to

A. orchids     

B. birds     

C. insects     

D. species

Question 8: The word “discrete” in line 16 is closest in meaning to

A. complicated     

B. separate     

C. inoffensive     

D. functional

Đáp án: B

3. Các câu trắc nghiệm Đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh có đáp án chuẩn nhất:

Exercise 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The American type of football was developed in the 19th century from soccer and rugby football. Played by professionals, amateurs, college and high school students, or young children, football in American is one of the most popular sports besides basketball and baseball. It attracts millions of fans each fall and people are very supportive of their favourite teams. The football playing field of today is rectangular in shape and measures 100 yards long and 53.5 yards wide. White lines are painted on the playing field to mark off the distances to the end zone. The games is divided into four quarters, each fifteen minutes long. The first two quarters are known as the first half. There is a rest period between two halves which usually last about fifteen minutes. Each team has eleven players. Each team has offensive players who play when the team has possession of the ball and defensive players who play when the other team has the possession of the ball. Because of the body contact players have during the game, helmets are worn to protect their head and face area, whereas pads are worn to protect the shoulders, arms, and legs. Also, there are officials carrying whistles and flags to make certain that the rules of the game are followed during the game. The football is made of leather and is brown in colour. It is shaped much like an oval and has white rings near each end of the football. These rings help the players see the ball when it is thrown or someone is running with it. The eight stitches on the top of the football help the players to grip the ball when throwing or passing. The most famous game of the year is Super Bowl that is played in January or February. It is televised around the world and is watched by millions of people each year.

Question 1: What do officials do during the game of football?

A. build up excitement among the fans    

B. supervise the game

C. take up tickets     

D. spectate the game

Đáp án: B

Question 2: As mentioned in the text, who are the most active when their team has the ball?

A. offensive players     

B. defensive players     

C. the officials     

D. the fans

Đáp án: A

Question 3: Playing American football is the most similar to playing

A. rugby football     

B. basketball     

C. baseball     

D. volleyball

Đáp án: A

Question 4: What do pads help the players to protect?

A. their legs and arms     

B. their heads     

C. the whole body     

D. their faces

Đáp án: A

Question 5: Which is the most popular sport in the US?

A. Rugby football     

B. Soccer     

C. American football     

D. It’s not mentioned

Đáp án: D

Question 6: When is the most famous football game held annually?

A. in the fall     

B. January     

C. February     

D. January or February

Đáp án: D

Question 7: Why are there white rings on each end of the football?

A. to mark off the distances to the end zone     

B. to help players run

C. to help players score     

D. to help players see the ball

Đáp án: D

Question 8: The word “grip” in the passage means to

A. avoid something     

B. take something away

C. old something tightly     

D. detect something

Đáp án: C

Exercise 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

One day in 1924, five men who were camping in the Cascade Mountains of Washington saw a group of huge apelike creatures coming out of the woods. They hurried back to their cabin and locked themselves inside. While they were in, the creatures attacked them by throwing rocks against the walls of the cabin.

After several hours, these strange hairy giants went back into the woods. After this incident the men returned to the town and told the people of their adventure. However, only a few people accepted their story. These were the people who remembered hearing tales about footprints of an animal that walked like a human being.

The five men, however, were not the first people to have seen these creatures called Bigfoot. Long before their experience, local Native Americans were certain that a race of apelike animals had been living in the neighboring mountain for centuries. They called these creatures Sasquatch.

In 1958, workmen, who were building a road through the jungles of Northern California often found huge footprints in the earth around their camp.

Then in 1967, Roger Patterson, a man who was interested in finding Bigfoot went into the Northern California jungles with a friend. While riding, they were suddenly thrown off from their horses. Patterson saw a tall apelike animal standing not far away. He managed to shoot seven rolls of film of the hairy creature before the animal disappeared in the hushes. when Patterson’s film was shown to the public, not many people believed his story.

In another incident, Richard Brown, a music teacher and also an experienced hunter spotted a similar creature. He saw the animal clearly through the telescopic lens of his rifle. He said the creature looked more like a human than an animal.

Later many other people also found deep footprints in the same area. In spite of regular reports of sightings and footprints, most experts still do not believe that Bigfoot really exists.

Question 1: The word neighboring would BEST be replaced with ______.

A. remote     B. nearby     C. far-off     D. far-away

Question 2: Did the town people believe the story of the five men about their meeting with Bigfoot?

A. No, not everyone believed their story.

B. All the people believed what they said.

C. Some said the five men were making up their own story

D. Only those who had heard the same tale the second time believed them.

Đáp án: D

Question 3: Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

A. spotted – saw     B. creatures – animals     C. woods — jungles     D. huge — hairy

Đáp án: D

Question 4: Who were the first people to have seen these apelike creatures before the five campers?

A. Richard Brown, a music teacher and a hunter.

B. Roger Patterson and his friend.

C. The local Native Americans.

D. The workers who built the road in the jungles of Northern California.

Question 5: The BEST title for this passage would be

A. The adventures of Bigfoot.     B. The experts and the existence of Bigfoot.

C. The creature called Bigfoot.     D. The adventures of the five campers.

Đáp án: C

Question 6: What did the five campers do when they saw a group of apelike creatures?

A. They threw rocks against the walls of their cabin to frighten the creatures away.

B. They attacked the creatures by throwing rocks at them.

C. They ran into the woods and hid there for several hours.

D. They quickly ran back into their cabin and locked the cabin door.

Đáp án: D

Question 7: Who called the apelike creatures ‘Sasquatch’?

A. Richard Brown     B. The local Native Americans

C. The five campers     D. Roger Patterson

Đáp án: B

Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Telecommuting is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose jobs involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable

Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular ?

Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.

It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.

Question 1: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?

A. More than predicted in Business Week.

B. More than 8 million.

C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.

D. Fewer than last year.

Đáp án: B

Question 2: The phrase “of no consequence” means ___________.

A. of no use     B. of no good     C. unimportant     D. irrelevant

Đáp án: C

Question 3: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT ___________ .

A. the opportunities for advancement     B. the different system of supervision

C. the lack of interaction with a group     D. The work place is in the home

Đáp án: B

Question 4: The word “ them” which is bold and italic refers to ___________.

A. systems     B. telecommuters     C. executives     D. responsibilities

Đáp án: B

Question 5: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees ___________.

A. needn’t regular interaction with their families

B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office

C. like that a work area in their home is away from the office

D. are ignorant of telecommuting

Đáp án: B

Question 6: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is ___________.

A. a telecommuter     B. the manager

C. a statistician     D. a reporter

Đáp án: D

Question 7: When Business Week published “ The Portable Executive “, it implied that___________.

A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective

B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting

C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic

D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work

Đáp án: B

Exercise 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Marianne Moore (1887-1972) once said that her writing could be called poetry only because there was no other name for it. Indeed her poems appear to be extremely compressed essays that happen to be printed in jagged lines on the page. Her subjects were varied: animals, laborers, artists, and the craft of poetry. From her general reading came quotations that she found striking or insightful. She included these in her poems, scrupulously enclosed in quotation marks, and sometimes identified in footnotes. Of this practice, she wrote, “Why many quotation marks?” I am asked … When a thing has been so well that it could not be said better, why paraphrase it? Hence, my writing is, if not a cabinet of fossils, a kind of collection of flies in amber.” Close observation and concentration on detail and the methods of her poetry.

Marianne Moore grew up in Kirkwood, Missouri, near St. Lois. After graduation from Bryn Mawr College in 1909, she taught commercial subjects at the Indian School in Carlisle, Pennsylvania. Later she became a librarian in New York City. During the 1920’s she was editor of

The Dial, an important literary magazine of the period. She lived quietly all her life, mostly in Brooklyn, New York. She spent a lot of time at the Bronx Zoo, fascinated by animals. Her admiration of the Brooklyn Dodgers-before the team moved to Los Angeles-was widely known.

Her first book of poems was published in London in 1921 by a group of friends associated with the Imagist movement. From that time on her poetry has been read with interest by succeeding generations of poets and readers. In 1952 she was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for her Collected Poems. She wrote that she did not write poetry for money or fame. To earn a living is needful, but it can be done in routine ways. One writes because one has a burning desire to objectify what it is indispensable to one’s happiness to express.

Question 1: What is the passage mainly about?

A. The influence of the imagists on Marianne Moore.

B. Essayists and poets of the 1920’s.

C. The use of quotations in poetry.

D. Marianne Moore’s life and work.

Đáp án: D

Question 2: Which of the following can be inferred about Moore’s poems?

A. They are better known in Europe than the United States.

B. They do not use traditional verse forms.

C. They were all published in The Dial.

D. They tend to be abstract.

Đáp án: B

Question 3: According to the passage Moore wrote about all of the following EXCEPT ________

A. artists     B. animals     C. fossils     D. workers

Đáp án: C

Question 4: Where did Marianne Moore grow up?

A. In Carlisle, Pennsylvania.     B. In Kirkwood.

C. In New York City     D. In Los Angeles.

Đáp án: B

Question 5: The author mentions all of the following as jobs held by Moore EXCEPT ________

A. commercial artist     B. teacher     C. magazine editor     D. librarian

Đáp án: A

Question 6: Where did Moore spend most of her adult life?

A. In Kirkwood.     B. In Brooklyn.     C. In Los Angeles.     D. In Carlisle.

Đáp án: B

Question 7: The word “succeeding” is closest to ______.

A. inheriting     B. prospering     C. diverse     D. later

Đáp án: D

Question 8: The word “it” refers to ______.

A. writing poetry     B. becoming famous

C. earning a living     D. attracting readers

Đáp án: C

Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at that time.

Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and lefthanded. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain America’s fascination with him.

Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because America always loves a “natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.

But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank to forget his father’s early death.

It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped. Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.

Question 1: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Mickey Mantle’s success and private life full of problems

B. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time

C. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball

D. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player

Đáp án: A

Question 2: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle ______.

A. introduced baseball into the US

B. earned a lot of money from baseball

C. had to try hard to be a professional player

D. played for New York Yankees all his life

Đáp án: B

Question 3: The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. Mantle’s being fascinated by many people

B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete

C. Mantle’s being a “switch-hitter”

D. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player

Đáp án: B

Question 4: It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans ______.

A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe

B. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success

C. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural

D. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The author uses the word “But” in paragraph 4 to ______.

A. explain how Mantle got into trouble

B. give an example of the trouble in Mantle’s private life

C. give an argument in favor of Mantle’s success and fame

D. change the topic of the passage

Đáp án: D

Question 6: The word “accelerated” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. delayed     B. worsened     C. bettered     D.quickened

Đáp án: D

Question 7: Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s body?

A. His way of life     B. His loneliness

C. His own dream     D. His liver transplant operation

Đáp án: A

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from development. When British people think of the countryside they think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows or sheep in green fields enclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat and barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network of public footpaths.

Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country work on farms. Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe they would have a better and healthier lifestyle.

The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices, and the use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The green belt, an area of land around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least delay, the building work.

America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially in the West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New England states, such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or wheat reach to the horizon and there are many miles between towns.

Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people who live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can mean driving long distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the main road where their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many people who live in the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often move to a town or city as soon as they can.

As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on camping or fishing trips, others go hiking in national parks.

Question 1: We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain ______.

A. none of the areas faces the sea

B. only a few farms are publicly owned

C. most beautiful areas are not well preserved

D. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another

Đáp án: B

Question 2: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside of Britain?

A. Going swimming     B. Picking fruit

C. Going for a walk     D. Riding a bicycle

Đáp án: A

Question 3: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. Those who dream of living in the country

B. Those who go to fruit farms in summer

C. Those who go to the country for a picnic

D. Those who commute to work in towns

Đáp án: A

Question 4: Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?

A. Protests against the building work

B. Modern farming practices

C. Plants and wildlife

D. The green belt around cities

Đáp án: B

Question 5: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT ______.

A. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside

B. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work

C. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land

D. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction

Đáp án: D

Question 6: The phrase “reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. are limited B. are endless C. are horizontal D. are varied reach to

Đáp án: B

Question 7: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because ___.

A. their children enjoy country life

B. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there

C. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there

D. life there may be easier for them

Đáp án: B

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. The majority of American people live in cities and towns.

B. Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation.

C. Towns in some Midwestern states in the US are separated by long distances.

D. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.

Đáp án: D

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local governments. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.

Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs Social Security – has become an American institution. Paid for by deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated. In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include Medicaid and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to persons on low incomes. Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government for help. A broad spectrum of private charities and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percent of U.S. households contribute money to charity.

Question 1: New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from ______.

A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies

C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations

Đáp án: A

Question 2: It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth of______.

A. industrialization B. modernization C. urbanization D. population

Đáp án: A

Question 3: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to ______.

A. deductions from wages B. people’s willingness to work

C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws

Đáp án: A

Question 4: Most of the public assistance programs ______ after the severe economic crisis.

A. were introduced into institutions B. did not become institutionalized

C. functioned fruitfully in institutions D. did not work in institutions

Đáp án: B

Question 5: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that ______.

A. elderly people ask for more money

B. the program discourages working people

C. the number of elderly people is growing

D. younger people do not want to work

Đáp án: C

Question 6: Persons on low incomes can access public housing through ______.

A. low rents B. state spending C. donations D. federal expenditure

Đáp án: D

Question 7: The passage mainly discusses ______.

A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America

C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America

Đáp án: A

Exercise 8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.

The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.

On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn’t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor didn’t agree.

What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.

As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it’s wise not to use your mobile phone too often.

Question 1: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because ______.

A. they are indispensable in everyday communications

B. they make them look more stylish

C. they keep the users alert all the time

D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones

Đáp án: B

Question 2: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ______.

A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain

C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory

Đáp án: B

Question 3: The word “means” in the passage most closely means ______.

A. “meanings” B. “expression” C. “method” D. “transmission”

Đáp án: C

Question 4: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may ________.

A. damage their users’ emotions B. cause some mental malfunction

C. change their users’ temperament D. change their users’ social behaviours

Đáp án: B

Question 5: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, ______.

A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly

C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory

Đáp án: D

Question 6: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ______.

A. their radiant light C. their raiding power

B. their power of attraction D. their invisible rays

Đáp án: D

Question 7: According to the writer, people should ______.

A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases

C. keep off mobile phones regularly

B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies

D. never use mobile phones in all cases

Đáp án: A

Question 8: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.

A. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular”

B. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”

C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work”

D. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time”

Đáp án: B

Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Supernovas are the most powerful and spectacular outbursts known in nature. What is called a Type II supernova is due to the collapse of a massive star, at least eight times as massive as the sun, that has used up its main nuclear fuel and produced a nickel-iron core. When this core can no longer support the pressure of the star’s outer layer, it collapses to form a neutron star of immense density. Over 2,500 million tons of neutron star packed into a matchbox. Its temperature is around 100,000 million degrees centigrade.

Multitudes of neutrons are produced in the collapsed star, which pass directly through the star into space, and this release of neutrons causes the core to respond with a shock wave that moves outward.

When it meets the material that is falling inward, the result is a catastrophic explosion. Sometimes most of the star’s material is blown away, leaving only a small, incredibly dense remnant that may be a neutron star or, in extreme cases, a black hole.

A supernova is often more than 500 million times as luminous as the sun. A supernova remnant (SNR) may be detectable as a pulsar, an example of which is the Crab Nebula, known to be a remnant of the supernova observed in the year 1054. The 1987 supernova in the Large Cloud of Magellan had a low peak luminosity by supernova standards, only about 250 million times that of the sun. As its brightest the supernova shone as a star between magnitudes 2 and 3, even though it was 170,000 light-years away.

Question 1: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The heat of supernovas     B. The formation and power of a supernova

C. The role of shock waves in a supernova     D. The density of a neutron star.

Đáp án: B

Question 2: The word “it” refers to __________.

A. core of the collapsed star     B. neutron star

C. shock wave     D. catastrophic explosion

Đáp án: C

Question 3: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the 1987 supernova?

A. It was the brightest supernova.     B. It was brighter than the sun.

C. It shone as a star between magnitudes 3 and 4.     D. It had the lowest peak luminously.

Đáp án: B

Question 4: The author of this passage is most likely __________________ .

A. an astronomer     B. an economist     C. a mathematician     D. a botanist

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The word “multitudes” is closest in meaning to _________ .

A. small numbers     B. groups     C. lots     D. temperatures

Đáp án: C

Question 6: The word “luminous” is closest in meaning to _________ .

A. powerful     B. bright     C. hot     D. distant

Đáp án: B

Question 7: What can be inferred from the passage about supernovas?

A. They sometimes result in a black hole

B. The sun is a remnant of a supernova

C. They occur when two stars collide

D. They only happen to pulsars

Đáp án: A

Exercise 10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world, many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.

Question 1: The passage is mainly about __________

A: why the Beatles split up after 7 years

B: many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song

C: the Beatles’ fame and success

D: how the Beatles became more successful than other groups

Đáp án: C

Question 2: The word ‘sensational’ is closest in meaning to __________.

A: popular     B: shocking     C: notorious     D: bad

Đáp án: A

Question 3: The first songs of the Beatles were __________

A: written by black Americans     B: paid a lot of money

C: broadcast on the radio     D: written by themselves

Đáp án: A

Question 4: What is NOT true about the Beatles?

A: They had a long stable career.

B: They became famous when they wrote their own songs.

C: The members had no training in music.

D: They changed pop music.

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The Beatles stopped their live performances because __________

A: they had earned enough money

B: they did not want to work with each other

C: they spent more time writing their own songs

D: they were afraid of being hurt by fans

Đáp án: D

Question 6: Some songs of the Beatles now __________

A: are the most famous     B: became too old to sing

C: are still famous as they used to be     D: are sung by crazy fans

Đáp án: C

Question 7: The tone of the passage is that of __________

A: admiration     B: criticism     C: sarcasm     D: neutral

Đáp án: A

4. Các câu trắc nghiệm Đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh có đáp án chọn lọc:

Exercise 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English, at least three have been identified and described.

Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the levels of formality. As such, these words and expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, however, refers to words and expressions understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both Colloquial usage and slang are more common in speech than in writing. Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and events.

It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association among the subgroups and the majority population.

Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial” and “slang” exist only as abstract labels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate situations, select and use all three types of expressions.

Question 1: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A: Standard speech     B: Idiomatic phrases

C: Dictionary usage     D: Different types of vocabulary

Đáp án: A

Question 2: How is slang defined by the author?

A: Words and phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries.

B: Words and phrases accepted by the majority for formal usage.

C: Words and phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers.

D: Words and phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal usage.

Đáp án: D

Question 3: The word “obscurity” could best be replaced by __________

A: qualification     B: tolerance     C: disappearance     D: influence

Đáp án: C

Question 4: The word “them” refers to __________

A: slang phrases     B: memories     C: the majority     D: words

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The statement: “Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations.” means:

A: Most of the speakers of a language can use both formal and informal speech in appropriate situations.

B: Familiar situations that are experienced by most people are called colloquialisms.

C: Familiar words and phrases are found in both speech and writing in formal settings.

D: Informal language contains colloquialisms, which are not found in more formal language.

Đáp án: C

Question 6: Which of the following is true of standard usage?

A: It can be used in formal or informal settings.

B: It is only understood be the upper classes.

C: It limited to written language.

D: It is constantly changing.

Đáp án: A

Question 7: The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be created EXCEPT

A: new situations     B: a new generation

C: interaction among diverse groups     D: a number of linguists

Đáp án: D

Question 8: It can be inferred from the passage that the author

A: approves of colloquial speech in some situations, but not slang

B: approves of slang and colloquial speech in appropriate situations

C: does not approve of either slang or colloquial speech in any situation

D: does not approve of colloquial usage in writing

Đáp án: B

Exercise 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Mandatory volunteering made many members of Maryland’s high school class of 97 grumble with indignation. They didn’t like a new requirement that made them take part in the school’s community service program. Future seniors, however, probably won’t be as resistant now that the program has broken in. Some, like John Maloney, already have completed their required hours of approved community service. The Bowie High School sophomore earned his hours in eighth grade by volunteering two nights a week at the Larkin-Chase Nursing and Restorative Center in Bowie.He played shuffle board, cards, and other games with the senior citizens. He also helped plan parties for them and visited their rooms to keep them company.

John, fifteen, is not finished volunteering. Once a week he videotapes animals at the Prince George’s County animal shelter in Forestville. His footage is shown on the Bowie public access television channel in hopes of finding homes for the animals. “Volunteering is better than just sitting around,” says John, “and I like animals; I don’t want to see them put to sleep.” He’s not the only volunteer in his family. His sister, Melissa, an eighth grader, has completed her hours also volunteering at Larkin-Chase.

“It is a good idea to have kids go out into the community, but it’s frustrating to have to write essays about the works,” she said. It makes you feel like you’re doing it for the requirement and not for yourself.” The high school’s service learning office, run by Beth Ansley, provides information on organizations seeking volunteers so that students will have an easier time fulfilling their hours.

“It’s ridiculous that people are opposing the requirements,” said Amy Rouse, who this summer has worked at the Ronald McDonald House and has helped to rebuild a church in Clinton.

“So many people won’t do the service unless it’s mandatory,” Rouse said, “but once they start doing it, they’ll really like it and hopefully it will become a part of their lives – like it has become a part of mine.”

Question 1: The best title of the passage could be ______.

A: “Students Who Volunteer to Work with Senior Citizens”

B: “Students Who Earn Extra Money after School”

C: “A Volunteer Program at Bowie High School”

D: “The High School Class of 1977”

Đáp án: C

Question 2: The word “frustrating” in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to ______.

A: interesting     B: happy     C: satisfying     D: upset

Đáp án: D

Question 3: The word “it” in paragraph 7 refers to ______.

A: completing requirements     B: writing essays

C: doing volunteer work     D: A. going out in the community

Đáp án: D

Question 4: From paragraphs 6 and 7, we can infer that Melissa Maloney ______.

A: volunteers because it’s a requirement

B: is frustrated by her volunteer job

C: volunteers because it makes her feel good

D: doesn’t like to write essays about her volunteer work

Đáp án: D

Question 5: According to the last two paragraphs, Amy Rouse thinks that ______.

A: most people don’t like volunteering, so they don’t want to do it

B: most people will discover they enjoy volunteering if they try it

C: the volunteer program shouldn’t be mandatory

D: people should be able to choose whether they want to volunteer

Đáp án: B

Question 6: Which of the following volunteer activities is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A: Videotaping animals in a shelter.     B: Rebuilding a church.

C: Tutoring children.     D: Visiting elderly people.

Đáp án: C

Question 7: In the passage, the author gives the explanation of the concept of mandatory volunteer programs by ______.

A: describing one volunteer program

B: classifying different types of volunteer programs

C: arguing in favor of volunteer programs

D: comparing two volunteer programs

Đáp án: A

Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large boulders. The most abundant particles – sand, silt, and clay – are the focus of examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls . To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the sample weight.

In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when dampened , behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.

Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

Question 1: The author mentions “several representative handfuls” in the passage in order to show ______.

A: the range of soil samples     B: the requirements for an adequate soil sam

C: the process by which soil is weighed     D: how small soil particles are

Đáp án: A

Question 2: It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2 reflect ______.

A: the way the soil is extracted

B: the need to check more than one handful

C: the difficulty of forming different shapes

D: the results of squeezing the soil

Đáp án: D

Question 3: The word “dampened” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.

A: damaged     B: stretched     C: moistened     D: examined

Đáp án: C

Question 4: It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it ______.

A: does not have a durable shape     B: is not very heavy

C: does not have a classifiable texture     D: may not hold its shape when molded

Đáp án: D

Question 5: The word “they” in the passage refers to ______.

A: larger particles     B: sieves     C: categories     D: clay particles

Đáp án: B

Question 6: It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because ______.

A: the sieve allows for a more exact measure

B: less training is required to use the sieve

C: using the sieve takes less time

D: the sieve can measure clay

Đáp án: A

Question 7: During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into water they ______.

A: stick to the sides of the water container     B: dissolve quickly

C: take some time to sink to the bottom     D: separate into different sizes

Đáp án: C

Question 8: The word “fine” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.

A: many     B: excellent     C: tiny     D: various

Đáp án: C

Exercise 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Thanksgiving is celebrated in the US on the fourth Thursday in November. For many Americans it is the most important holiday apart from Christmas. Schools, offices and most businesses close for Thanksgiving, and many people make the whole weekend a vacation.

Thanksgiving is associated with the time when Europeans first came to North America. In 1620 the ship the Mayflowers arrived, bringing about 150 people who today are usually called Pilgrims. They arrived at the beginning of a very hard winter and could not find enough to eat, so many of them died. But in the following summer Native Americans showed them what foods were safe to eat, so that they could save food for the next winter. They held a big celebration to thank God and the Native Americans for the fact that they had survived.

Today people celebrate Thanksgiving to remember these early days. The most important part of the celebration is a traditional dinner with foods that come from North America. The meal includes turkey, sweet potatoes (also called yams) and cranberries, which are made into a kind of sauce or jelly. The turkey is filled with stuffing or dressing, and many families have their own special recipe. Dessert is pumpkin made into a pie.

On Thanksgiving there are special television programs and sports events. In New York there is the Macy’s Thanksgiving Day Parade, when a long line of people wearing fancy costumes march through the streets with large balloons in the shape of imaginary characters. Thanksgiving is considered the beginning of the Christmas period, and the next day many people go out to shop for Christmas presents.

Question 1: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To compare how Thanksgiving was celebrated in the past and today.

B. To give an overview of a popular celebration in the US.

C. To explain the existence of a celebration in the US.

D. To introduce a Native American culture.

Question 2: In the United States, Thanksgiving is ______.

A. a religious celebration held by Christians only.

B. celebrated as a public holiday.

C. more important than Christmas.

D. apart from Christmas.

Đáp án: B

Question 3: According to the passage, Pilgrims are ______.

A. people who traveled to America by ships

B. trips that religious people make to a holy place

C. people who left their home and went to live in North America in 1620s

D. Native Americans who live in North America

Đáp án: C

Question 4: All of the following statements are mentioned EXCEPT ______.

A. People celebrate Thanksgiving to thank God.

B. People usually have traditional dinners on Thanksgiving.

C. There are lots of entertainments on Thanksgiving.

D. People go to churches for religious services on Thanksgiving.

Đáp án: D

Question 5: Which of the following statements is not TRUE about Thanksgiving ______?

A. turkey, yams and pumpkin pies are served.

B. people join in the Macy’s Thanksgiving Day Parade.

C. people wear colored costumes marching through the streets.

D. people go out to shop for Christmas presents

Đáp án: D

Question 6: In the second paragraph, the pronoun “them” refers to which of the following?

A. Pilgrims     B. the Mayflowers     C. Native Americans     D. Schools

Đáp án: A

Question 7: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. In the US, Thanksgiving is not a national holiday; it’s a religious holiday.

B. Christmas comes less than a month after Thanksgiving.

C. Thanksgiving was originally celebrated by the first Europeans in North America to thank God for their survival.

D. The Macy’s Thanksgiving Day Parade is colorful and exciting

Đáp án: A

Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world’s largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth’s core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.

The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.

The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.

Question 1: The word “hidden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. undrinkable     B. untouched     C. unexploitable     D. undiscovered

Đáp án: B

Question 2: What is true of Lake Vostok?

A. It is completely frozen.     B. It is saltwater lake.

C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice.     D. It is heated by the sun.

Đáp án: C

Question 3: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “frigid” in paragraph 1?

A. extremely cold     B. easily broken     C. quite harsh     D. lukewarm

Đáp án: A

Question 4: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it______.

A. was conducted by air     B. made use of radio waves

C. could not determine the lake’s exact size     D. was controlled by a satellite

Đáp án: D

Question 5: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if______.

A. there were no lake underneath     B. the lake were not so big

C. Antarctica were not so cold     D. radio waves were not used

Question 6: The word “microbes” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. Pieces of dust     B. Tiny bubbles     C. Tiny organisms     D. Rays of light

Đáp án: C

Question 7: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it________.

A. can be studied using radio waves

B. may contain uncontaminated microbes

C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light

D. has already been contaminated

Đáp án: B

Question 8: The purpose of the passage is to ________.

A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered

B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica

C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok

D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica’s geography

Đáp án: D

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In developing countries, where three fourths of the world’s population live, sixty percent of the people who can’t read and write are women. Being illiterate doesn’t mean they are not intelligent. It does mean it is difficult for them to change their lives. They produce more than half of the food. In Africa eighty percent of all agricultural work is done by women. There are many programs to help poor countries develop their agriculture. However, for years, these programs provided money and training for men.

In parts of Africa, this is a typical day for a village woman. At 4:45 a.m, she gets up, washes and eats. It takes her a half hour to walk to the fields, and she works there until 3:00 p.m. She collects firewood and gets home at 4:00. She spends the next hour and a half preparing food to cook. Then she collects water for another hour. From 6:30 to 8:30 she cooks. After dinner, she spends an hour washing the dishes and her children. She goes to bed at 9:30 p.m.

International organizations and programs run by developed nations are starting to help women, as well as men, improve their agricultural production. Governments have already passed some laws affecting women because of the UN Decade for Women. The UN report will affect the changes now happening in the family and society.

Question 1: What does the word “run” in the last paragraph mean?

A. move quickly     B. push     C. managed     D. organized

Đáp án: C

Question 2: Why do people say women produce more than half of the food in Africa?

A. because 60 percent of women are illiterate.

B. because 80 percent of all agricultural work is done by women.

C. most women are not intelligent.

D. all are correct.

Đáp án: B

Question 3: Why do people say that African women’s lives are hard?

A. Because these women are busy with housework.

B. Because they work all day in the fields.

C. both A and B are correct.

D. Because they are illiterate.

Đáp án: C

Question 4: A typical African woman spends _______ collecting firewood every day.

A. 3 hour     B. 2 hours     C. 1 hour     D. 4 hours

Đáp án: C

Question 5: Which of these statements is NOT TRUE?

A. Women’s roles in the family and society are changing nowadays.

B. It is difficult for women to change their lives because of their illiteracy.

C. In the past only men in poor countries got benefit from many international programs.

D. Because they are illiterate, women are not intelligent.

Đáp án: D

Question 6: By whom (what) was the Decade for Women organized?

A. by the United Nations Organization.     B. by developing countries

C. by the World Health Organization.     D. by many African countries.

Đáp án: A

Question 7: The passage would most likely be followed by details about _______.

A. changes in life between men and women in the family and in the society

B. negative effects of the UNO law

C. positive effects of the roles of women

D. women and men’s roles in their family

Đáp án: A

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In Science, a theory is a reasonable explanation of observed events that are related. A theory often involves an imaginary model that helps scientists picture the way an observed event could be produced. A good example of this is found in the kinetic molecular theory, in which gases are pictured as being made up of many small particles that are in constant motion.

After a theory has been publicized, scientists design experiments to test the theory. If observations confirm the scientists’ predictions, the theory is supported. If observations do not confirm the predictions, the scientists must search further. There may be a fault in the experiment, or the theory may have to be revised or rejected.

Science involves imagination and creative thinking as well as collecting information and performing experiments. Facts by themselves arc not science. As the mathematician Jules Henri Poincare said: “Science is built with facts just as a house is built with bricks, but a collection of facts cannot be called science any more than a pile of bricks can be called a house.”

Most scientists start an investigation by finding out what other scientists have learned about a particular problem. After known facts have been gathered, the scientist comes to the part of the investigation that requires considerable imagination. Possible solutions to the problem are formulated. These possible solutions are called hypotheses. In a way, any hypothesis is a leap into the unknown. It extends the scientist’s thinking beyond the known facts. The scientist plans experiments, performs calculations, and makes observations to test hypotheses. For without hypotheses, further investigation lacks purpose and direction. When hypotheses are confirmed, they are incorporated into theories.

Question 1: Which of the following is the main subject of the passage?

A. The importance of models in scientific theories.

B. The sorts of facts that scientists find most interesting.

C. The ways that scientists perform different types of experiments.

D. The place of theory and hypothesis in scientific investigation.

Đáp án: D

Question 2: The word “related” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. described     B. identified     C. connected     D. completed

Đáp án: C

Question 3: According to the second paragraph, a useful theory is one that helps scientists to _______.

A. observe events     B. publicize new findings

C. make predictions     D. find errors in past experiments

Đáp án: A

Question 4: The word “supported” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. upheld     B. finished     C. adjusted     D. investigated

Đáp án: A

Question 5: “Bricks” are mentioned in paragraph 3 to indicate how _______.

A. science is more than a collection of facts

B. scientific experiments have led to improved technology

C. mathematicians approach science

D. building a house is like performing experiments

Đáp án: A

Question 6: In the fourth paragraph, the author implies that imagination is most important to scientists when they _______.

A. formulate possible solutions to a problem

B. evaluate previous work on a problem

C. close an investigation

D. gather known facts

Đáp án: A

Question 7: In the last paragraph, what does the author imply is a major function of hypotheses?

A. Linking together different theories.

B. Communicating a scientist’s thoughts to others.

C. Providing direction for scientific research.

D. Sifting through known facts.

Đáp án: C

Question 8: Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

A. Theories are simply imaginary models of past events.

B. A scientist’s most difficult task is testing hypotheses.

C. A good scientist needs to be creative.

D. It is better to revise a hypothesis than to reject it.

Đáp án: C

Exercise 8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently.

Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages.

Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage in communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods must be based upon speech. To radio, television, and the telephone, one must add fax, paging systems, electronic mail, and the Internet, and no one doubts but that there are more means of communication on the horizon.

Question 1: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. Gestures     B. Signs and signals     C. Speech     D. Communication

Đáp án: D

Question 2: According to this passage, what is a signal?

A. A form of communication that interrupts the environment.

B. The most difficult form of communication to describe.

C. A form of communication which may be used across long distances.

D. The form of communication most related to cultural perception.

Đáp án: A

Question 3: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ____________.

A. way     B. environment     C. function     D. signal

Đáp án: D

Question 4: The word “intricate” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ___________.

A. inefficient     B. complicated     C. historical     D. uncertain

Đáp án: B

Question 5: Applauding was cited as an example of ____________.

A. a signal     B. a sign     C. a gesture     D. a symbol

Đáp án: D

Question 6: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?

A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.

B. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.

C. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.

D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.

Đáp án: C

Question 7: It may be concluded from this passage that ____________.

A. Only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols.

B. Signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication.

C. Symbols are very easy to define and interrupt.

D. Waving and handshaking are not related to culture.

Đáp án: B

Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention. Known as a highly contagious viral disease, it broke out in Europe, causing the deaths of millions of people until the vaccination was invented by Edward Jenner around 1800. In many nations, it was a terror, a fatal disease until very recently. Its victims suffer high fever, vomiting and painful, itchy, pustules that left scars. In villages and cities all over the world, people were worried about suffering smallpox.In May, 1966, the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United Nations was authorized to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eliminate the disease in one decade. At the time, the disease posed a serious threat to people in more than thirty nations. Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the initial organization of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One by one, each small-pox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.By April of 1978 WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case of the disease but health workers continued to search for new cases for additional years to be completely sure. In May, 1980, a formal statement was made to the global community. Today smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.

Question 1: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. The eradication of smallpox     B. The World Health Organization

C. Infectious disease     D. Smallpox vaccinations

Đáp án: A

Question 2: The word “contagious” is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. courteous     B. arresting     C. numerous     D. catching

Đáp án: D

Question 3: The global community considered the smallpox ___________.

A. a minor illness     B. a deadly illness     C. a mental illness     D. a rare illness

Đáp án: B

Question 4: The word “threat” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ___________.

A. risk     B. debate     C. announce     D. bother

Đáp án: A

Question 5: According to the passage, what way was used to eliminate the spread of smallpox?

A. Vaccination of entire villages

B. Treatment of individual victims

C. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations

D. Extensive reporting of outbreaks

Đáp án: C

Question 6: How was the public motivated to help the health workers?

A. By educating them.

B. By rewarding them for reporting smallpox cases.

C. By isolating them from others.

D. By giving them vaccinations.

Đáp án: B

Question 7: Which one of the statements doesn’t refer to smallpox?

A. Previous project had failed.

B. People are no longer vaccinated for it.

C. The WHO set up a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease.

D. It was a fatal threat.

Đáp án: A

Question 8: It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.

A. yellow fever have been reported this year.

B. no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year.

C. smallpox victims no longer die when they contact the disease.

D. smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another.

Đáp án: B

Exercise 10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The American type of football was developed in the 19th century from soccer and rugby football. Played by professionals, amateurs, college and high school students, or young children, football in American is one of the most popular sports besides basketball and baseball. It attracts millions of fans each fall and people are very supportive of their favourite teams. The football playing field of today is rectangular in shape and measures 100 yards long and 53.5 yards wide. White lines are painted on the playing field to mark off the distances to the end zone. The games is divided into four quarters, each fifteen minutes long. The first two quarters are known as the first half. There is a rest period between two halves which usually last about fifteen minutes. Each team has eleven players. Each team has offensive players who play when the team has possession of the ball and defensive players who play when the other team has the possession of the ball. Because of the body contact players have during the game, helmets are worn to protect their head and face area, whereas pads are worn to protect the shoulders, arms, and legs. Also, there are officials carrying whistles and flags to make certain that the rules of the game are followed during the game. The football is made of leather and is brown in colour. It is shaped much like an oval and has white rings near each end of the football. These rings help the players see the ball when it is thrown or someone is running with it. The eight stitches on the top of the football help the players to grip the ball when throwing or passing. The most famous game of the year is Super Bowl that is played in January or February. It is televised around the world and is watched by millions of people each year.

Question 1: What do officials do during the game of football?

A. build up excitement among the fans     B. supervise the game

C. take up tickets     D. spectate the game

Question 2: As mentioned in the text, who are the most active when their team has the ball?

A. offensive players     B. defensive players     C. the officials     D. the fans

Đáp án: A

Question 3: Playing American football is the most similar to playing.

A. rugby football     B. basketball     C. baseball     D. volleyball

Đáp án: A

Question 4: What do pads help the players to protect?

A. their legs and arms     B. their heads     C. the whole body     D. their faces

Đáp án: A

Question 5: Which is the most popular sport in the US?

A. Rugby football    B. Soccer     C. American football     D. It’s not mentioned

Đáp án: D

Question 6: When is the most famous football game held annually?

A. in the fall     B. January     C. February     D. January or February

Đáp án: D

Question 7: Why are there white rings on each end of the football?

A. to mark off the distances to the end zone     B. to help players run

C. to help players score     D. to help players see the ball

Đáp án: D

Question 8: The word “grip” in the passage means to

A. avoid something     B. take something away

C. old something tightly     D. detect something

Đáp án: C

5. Các câu trắc nghiệm Đọc hiểu Tiếng Anh có đáp án đúng nhất: 

Exercise 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

One day in 1924, five men who were camping in the Cascade Mountains of Washington saw a group of huge apelike creatures coming out of the woods. They hurried back to their cabin and locked themselves inside. While they were in, the creatures attacked them by throwing rocks against the walls of the cabin.

After several hours, these strange hairy giants went back into the woods. After this incident the men returned to the town and told the people of their adventure. However, only a few people accepted their story. These were the people who remembered hearing tales about footprints of an animal that walked like a human being.

The five men, however, were not the first people to have seen these creatures called Bigfoot. Long before their experience, local Native Americans were certain that a race of apelike animals had been living in the neighboring mountain for centuries. They called these creatures Sasquatch.

In 1958, workmen, who were building a road through the jungles of Northern California often found huge footprints in the earth around their camp.

Then in 1967, Roger Patterson, a man who was interested in finding Bigfoot went into the Northern California jungles with a friend. While riding, they were suddenly thrown off from their horses. Patterson saw a tall apelike animal standing not far away. He managed to shoot seven rolls of film of the hairy creature before the animal disappeared in the hushes. when Patterson’s film was shown to the public, not many people believed his story.

In another incident, Richard Brown, a music teacher and also an experienced hunter spotted a similar creature. He saw the animal clearly through the telescopic lens of his rifle. He said the creature looked more like a human than an animal.

Later many other people also found deep footprints in the same area. In spite of regular reports of sightings and footprints, most experts still do not believe that Bigfoot really exists.

Question 1: The word neighboring would BEST be replaced with

A. remote     B. nearby    C. far-off     D. far-away

Đáp án: B

Question 2: Did the town people believe the story of the five men about their meeting with Bigfoot?

A. No, not everyone believed their story.

B. All the people believed what they said.

C. Some said the five men were making up their own story

D. Only those who had heard the same tale the second time believed them.

Đáp án: D

Question 3: Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

A. spotted – saw    B. creatures – animals     C. woods – jungles     D. huge – hairy

Đáp án: D

Question 4: Who were the first people to have seen these apelike creatures before the five campers?

A. Richard Brown, a music teacher and a hunter.

B. Roger Patterson and his friend.

C. The local Native Americans.

D. The workers who built the road in the jungles of Northern California.

Đáp án: C

Question 5: The BEST title for this passage would be ________ .

A. The adventures of Bigfoot.     B. The experts and the existence of Bigfoot.

C. The creature called Bigfoot.     D. The adventures of the five campers.

Đáp án: C

Question 6: What did the five campers do when they saw a group of apelike creatures?

A. They threw rocks against the walls of their cabin to frighten the creatures away.

B. They attacked the creatures by throwing rocks at them.

C. They ran into the woods and hid there for several hours.

D. They quickly ran back into their cabin and locked the cabin door.

Đáp án: D

Question 7: Who called the apelike creatures ‘Sasquatch’?

A. Richard Brown     B. The local Native Americans

C. The five campers     D. Roger Patterson

Đáp án: B

Exercise 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

My family consists of four people. There’s my father whose name is Jan, my mother whose name is Marie, my brother, Peter and of course, me. I have quite a large extended family as well but, only the four of us live together in our apartment in a block of flats. My father is fifty-two years old. He works as an accountant in an insurance company. He is tall and slim, has got short brown and gray hair and blue eyes. My father likes gardening very much as well as listening to music and reading books about political science. His special hobbies are bird watching and travelling.

Now I’ll describe my mother and my brother. My mother is forty-seven and she works as a nurse in a hospital. She is small, and slim, has short brown hair and green eyes. She likes bird watching and travelling too, so whenever my parents are able to they go someplace interesting for nature watching. Since we have a cottage with a garden they both spend a lot of time there. My brother is sixteen. He is slim and has short brown hair and blue eyes. He also attends high school. He is interested in computers and sports like football and hockey. He also spends a lot of time with his friends.

I have only one grandmother left still living. She is in pretty good health even at the age of seventyeight so she still lives in her own flat. I enjoy spending time with her when I can. Both my grandfathers died from cancer because they were smokers, which was really a great tragedy because I didn’t get chance to know them. My other grandmother died just a few years ago. I also have a lot of aunts, uncles, and cousins. The cousin I’m closest to is my uncle’s daughter Pauline. We have a lot in common because we are both eighteen and so we are good friends.

My parents have assigned me certain duties around the house. I don’t mind helping out because everyone in a family should contribute in some way. I help with the washing up, the vacuuming and the shopping. Of course I also have to help keep my room tidy as well. My brother is responsible for the dusting and mopping. He also has to clean his own room. Even though my brother and I sometimes fight about who has to do what job, we are still very close. I am also very close to my parents and I can rely on them to help me. My parents work together to keep our home well maintained and it seem they always have a project or another that they are working on. They respect each other’s opinions and even if they disagree they can always come to a compromise. I hope in the future that 1 have a family like ours.

Question 1: What does the writer’s father do?

A. a cashier     Β. an accountant     C. a receptionist     D. a writer

Đáp án: B

Question 2: What does the writer’s mother look like?

A. She is slim and small     Β. She is small and has grey hair

C. She has blue eyes     D. She has long brown hair.

Đáp án: A

Question 3: What does the writer’s brother do?

A. a computer programmer     Β. a high school student

C. a college student     D. a football player

Đáp án: Β

Question 4: What happened to the writer’s grandfathers?

A. They died because they smoked too much.

Β. They got lung cancer a few years ago.

C. They had to leave their own flat.

D. They had an accident and died.

Đáp án: A

Question 5: The word “tragedy” in the third paragraph mostly means

A. bad luck     Β. sudden accident    C. sad event     D. boring result

Đáp án: C

Question 6: The word “assigned” in the fourth paragraph mostly means

A. allowed     Β. appointed     C. forced     D. encouraged

Đáp án: Β

Question 7: Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. The writer’s mother likes travelling.

B. One of the writer’s grandmothers is living with her.

C. The writer’s brother has to clean his own room.

D. The writer has a cousin whose age is the same as hers.

Đáp án: B

Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In early civilizations, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education meant simply learning to live. As civilizations became more complex, however, education became more formal, structured and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely on the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to this pattern. Plato was apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic philosophy, however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal education for men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.

In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were taught separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and singlesex schools for the privileged classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however, education for women on a separate but equal basis to that provided for men was becoming a clear responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. At the Council of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary schools for children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been born, but it was still in the realm of the single-sex school.

In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries have also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to coeducation has been felt in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both primary and secondary levels, according to local conditions.

A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in particular in single-sex classes: during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female gender roles may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for experimental work while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards achieved in girls’ schools. Some educationalists therefore suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly in certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea.

Question 1: Ancient education generally focused its efforts on _______.

A. male learners     Β. both sexes

C. female learners     D. young people only

Đáp án: A

Question 2: Education in early times was mostly aimed at _______.

A. teaching skills     Β. learning to live

C. learning new lifestyles     D. imparting survival skills

Đáp án: Β

Question 3: The first to support the equality of the sexes was _______.

A. the Chinese     Β. the Greek     C. Plato     D. the Jews

Đáp án: C

Question 4: The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring _______.

A. in classrooms     B. outside the school

C. in a department     D. ability

Đáp án: Β

Question 5: When education first reached women, they were _______.

A. locked up in a place with men     Β. isolated from normal life

C. deprived of opportunities     D. separated from men

Đáp án: D

Question 6: When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education _______.

A. was given free to all     B. was intended for all the sexes

C. focused on imparting skills     D. was intended to leave out female learners

Đáp án: Β

Question 7: The word “espouse” is contextually closest in meaning to “_______”

A. to support     Β. to put off    C. to give     D. to induce

Đáp án: A

Question 8: Co-education was negatively responded to in _______.

A. Japan     Β. the Scandinavian countries

C. South American countries     D. conservative countries

Đáp án: C

Exercise 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have no resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of the whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally: spelling, however, can not.

Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.

Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.

Question 1: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?

A. Everybody uses only one form of communication

B. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.

C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.

D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.

Đáp án: B

Question 2: The word “these” is the first passage refers to_________.

A. tourists     B. the deaf and the mute

C. thoughts and feelings     D. sign language motions

Đáp án: D

Question 3: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT______________

A. the deaf and the mute use an oral form of communication

B. verbalization is the most common form of communication

C. there are many forms of communication in existence today

D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language

Đáp án: A

Question 4: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among the blind people?

A. Body language     B. Picture signs     C. Braille     D. Signal flags

Đáp án: C

Question 5: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?

A. 5     B. 7     C. 9     D. 11

Đáp án: C

Question 6: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for____________

A. spelling     B. ideas     C. whole words     D. expressions

Đáp án: A

Question 7: People need to communicate in order to__________

A. keep from reading with their fingertips     B. create language barriers

C. express thoughts and feelings     D. be picturesque and exact

Đáp án: C

Question 8: What is the best title for the passage?

A. The Importance of Sign Language     B. Picturesque symbols of communication

C. Ways of expressing feelings     D. Many forms of communication

Đáp án: D

Exercise 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Many people believe that watching television has resulted in lower reading standards in schools. However, the link between television and printed books is not as simple as that. In many cases, television actually encourages people to read; for example, when a book is turned into a TV series, its sales often go up. One study of this link examined six-year-old children who were viewing a special series of 15-minute programs at school. The series was designed to encourage love of books, as well as to develop the basic mechanical skills of reading. Each program is an animated film of a children’s book. The story is read aloud and certain key phrases from the book appear on the screen, beneath the picture. Whenever a word is read, it is also highlighted on the TV screen.

One finding was that watching these programs was very important to the children. If anything prevented them from seeing a program, they were very disappointed. What’s more, they wanted to read the books which the different parts of the series were based on.

The programs also gave the children more confidence when looking at these books. As a result of their familiarity with the stories, they would sit in pairs and read the stories aloud to each other. On each occasion, the children showed great sympathy when discussing a character in a book because they themselves had been moved when watching the character on television.

Question 1: When does television encourage people to read?

A. When children are watching an animated film on TV

B. When a book is made into a TV series

C. When there are no interesting programs on TV

D. When a book appears on the screen

Đáp án: B

Question 2: How did children feel when viewing a special series of 15-minute program at school?

A. They felt confident.     B. They felt bored.

C. They felt disappointed     D. They felt excited.

Đáp án: D

Question 3: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The ways of children reading books and watching

B. The simple link between television and books

C. The influence of television on reading books

D. The advantage of books over television

Đáp án: C

Question 4: What advantage did children have from this program?

A. They became more interested in watching Triệu-vũ

B. They became more sympathetic.

C. They made more friends.

D. They read books with more interest and confidence

Đáp án: D

Question 5: What kind of film is each program?

A. An animated film of a children’s book

B. A story film of a children’s book

C. An educational film

D. A documentary film of children’s life

Đáp án: A

Question 6: Who were the subjects of the study?

A. all people     B. Six-year-old children

C. All school children     D. Adolescents

Đáp án: B

Question 7: The series was designed _____________

A. to examine children’s mind     B. to promote the children’s love of books

C. to develop their listening skill     D. to sale more books

Đáp án: B

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.

Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world..

Question 1: What is the main topic of this passage?

A. The number of non-native users of English.

B. The French influence on the English Language.

C. The expansion of English as an international language.

D. The use of English for science and technology

Đáp án: C

Question 2: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to____.

A. appeared     B. disappeared     C. frequented     D. engaged

Đáp án: A

Question 3: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to____.

A. declaration     B. features     C. curiosities     D. customs

Đáp án: B

Question 4: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?

A. In 1066     B. around 1350    C. before 1600     D. after 1600

Đáp án: D

Question 5: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world _________ .

A. the slave trade     B. the Norman invasion

C. missionaries     D. colonization

Đáp án: B

Question 6: In the second paragraph, the word “stored” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. bought     B. saved     C. spent     D. valued

Đáp án: B

Question 7: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world today?

A. a quarter million     B. half a million     C. 350 million     D. 700 million

Đáp án: C

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the changes to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our planet before. For example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods. These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that they occurred gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are said to be the result not of natural causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming alarmingly rapid.

The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts, this warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last 10,000 years. The implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could give rise to such ecological disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and of droughts. These in turn could have a harmful effect on agriculture.

It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and modern industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the atmosphere, but also create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This leads to the warming up of the planet.

Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on the subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of the world’s industrialized countries. Of these summits, the most important took place in Kyotoin Japanin 1997. There it was agreed that the most industrialized countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and were given targets for this reduction of emissions.

It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to absorb greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too drastic deforestation. Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate changes are often still being regarded as scaremongering.

Question 1: According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ from the modern ones

A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time

B. They were partly intended.

C. They were wholly the result of human activity.

D. They were fully monitored by humans.

Đáp án: A

Question 2: The word “alarmingly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. disapprovingly     B. disappointingly     C. surprisingly     D. worryingly

Đáp án: D

Question 3: According to the passage, agriculture could ____.

A. make the global warming more serious

B. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises

C. give rise to many ecological disasters

D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature

Đáp án: B

Question 4: Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they ____.

A. are emitted by car engines     B. trap heat from the sun

C. do not add to atmosphere pollution     D. are unusual gases

Đáp án: B

Question 5: According to the passage, 1997 witnessed ____.

A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change

B. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan

C. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialised countries

D. widespread concern about climate change

Đáp án: B

Question 6: It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible for global warming are ____.

A. countries with the warmest climate     B. developing countries

C. developed countries     D. the most industrialized countries

Đáp án: D

Question 7: The word “There” in paragraph 5 refers to ____.

A. the world’s industrialized countries

B. regular summits on climate change

C. the most industrialized countries

D. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan

Đáp án: D

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.

B. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.

C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation

D. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change

Đáp án: C

Exercise 8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Many flowering plants woo insect pollinators and gently direct them to their most fertile blossoms by changing the color of individual flowers from day to day. Through color cues, the plant signals to the insect that it would be better off visiting one flower on its bush than another. The particular hue tells the pollinator that the flower is full of far more pollen than are neighboring blooms. That nectar-rich flower also happens to be fertile and ready to disperse its pollen or to receive pollen the insect has picked up from another flower. Plants do not have to spend precious resources maintaining reservoirs of nectar in all their flowers. Thus, the color-coded communication system benefits both plants and insects.

For example, on the lantana plant, a flower starts out on the first day as yellow, when it is rich with pollen and nectar. Influenced by an as-yet-unidentified environmental signal, the flower changes color by triggering the production of the pigment anthromyacin. It turns orange on the second day and red on the third. By the third day, it has no pollen to offer insects and is no longer fertile. On any given lantana bush, only 10 to 15 per cent of the blossoms are likely to be yellow and fertile. But in tests measuring the responsiveness of butterflies, it was discovered that the insects visited the yellow flowers at least 100 times more than would be expected from haphazard visitation. Experiments with paper flowers and painted flowers demonstrated that the butterflies were responding to color cues rather than, say, the scent of the nectar.

In other types of plants, blossoms change from white to red, others from yellow to red, and so on. These color changes have been observed in some 74 families of plants.

Question 1: The first paragraph of the passage implies that insects benefit from the color-coded communication system because __________

A. they can gather pollen efficiently.

B. the colors hide them from predators.

C. the bright colors attract fertile females

D. other insect species can not understand the code.

Đáp án: A

Question 2: The word “woo” is closest in meaning to __________

A. frighten     B. trap     C. deceive     D. attract

Đáp án: D

Question 3: The word “it” refers to __________

A. a plant     B. a blossom     C. an insect     D. a signal

Đáp án: C

Question 4: Which of the following describes the sequence of color changes that lantana blossom undergo?

A. Red to purple     B. Yellow to orange to red

C. Red to yellow to white     D. White to red

Đáp án: B

Question 5: The word “triggering” is closest in meaning to __________

A. maintaining     B. renewing     C. activating     D. limiting

Đáp án: C

Question 6: The passage implies that insects would be most attracted to lantana blossoms __________

A. on the first day that they bloom     B. after they produce anthromyacin

C. when they turn orange     D. on the third day that they bloom

Đáp án: A

Question 7: The word “haphazard” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Fortunate     B. Expected     C. Dangerous     D. Random

Đáp án: D

Exercise 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.

Question 1: The topic of this passage is ___________.

A. infants and allergies     B. food and nutrition

C. reactions to foods     D. a good diet

Đáp án: C

Question 2: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ___________.

A. the vast number of different foods we eat

B. lack of a proper treatment plan

C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems

D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies

Đáp án: C

Question 3: The word “symptoms” is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. prescriptions     B. diet     C. diagnosis     D. indications

Đáp án: D

Question 4: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?

A. They can eat almost anything.

B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.

C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.

D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.

Đáp án: B

Question 5: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant’s ___________ .

A. lack of teeth     B. poor metabolism

C. inability to swallow solid foods     D. underdeveloped intestinal tract

Đáp án: B

Question 6: The word “these” refers to ___________.

A. food additives     B. food colorings

C. innutritious foods     D. foods high in salicylates

Đáp án: D

Question 7: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?

A. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet     B. Avoiding all Oriental foods

C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate     D. Eating more ripe bananas

Đáp án: A

Question 8: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT ___________.

A. available in book form

B. verified by researchers as being consistently effective

C. beneficial for hyperactive children

D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives

Đáp án: B

Exercise 10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Fungi are a group of organisms that, despite being plants, have no leaves or flowers. In fact, fungi do not even share the green colour that most other plants display. Scientists estimate that there are over 1.5 million different species of fungi in the world. Though, to date, only 100.000 have been identified, leaving many more that have not been found. One interesting feature of fungi is that they often interact with oilier organisms in order to survive. These relationships are at times beneficial to both organisms. Other times, the fungus benefits without causing harm to the other organism.

Many types of fungus have beneficial relationships with plants. Initially many gardeners would be concerned to know that their plants were colonised by a fungus. This is because some fungi can cause plants to die. In fact, the Irish potato famine was caused by a fungus that killed entire crops of potatoes. However, many plants actually depend on certain types of fungi to help it stay healthy. Fungi are important to plants because they help plants absorb more minerals from the soil than they could on their own. The reason for this has to do with how fungi obtain food. Unlike green plants, fungi cannot make their own food. They must absorb their food. When the fungi absorb minerals from the soil, they draw the nutrients closer to the roots of the plants, so the plant is able to use them as well. The fungus also benefits from this relationship. Using the minerals from the soil, as well as sunlight, the plants is able to produce sugars and other nutrients. Then the fungus absorbs the nutrients from plant roots and uses them to survive.

Not all relationships are beneficial for both organisms: in some interactions, only the fungus benefits. Still, for some fungus species, contact with other organisms is essential. And though the fungi do not provide any benefits for the other organism, they do not harm it either. One example of this is a species called Pilobolus. This fungus relies on other animals to help it reproduce. The Pilobolus grows in animal dung. When it becomes mature, it shoots its spores away from the dung pile. The spores land in the grass where cows graze. The spores are consumed by the animal but do not grow while inside the stomach. They travel through the body of the animal until they are passed and deposited in another area, where they continue to grow.

Question 1: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that___________

A. Many species of fungi have yet to be discovered

B. Fungi do harm to the organism they interact with

C. Fungi can have green or dull brown colors

D. There are 100,000 species of fungi left no identity

Đáp án: A

Question 2: The word “absorb” in the passage 2 is closest in meaning to_________.

A. consume     B. get in     C. deprive     D. take in

Đáp án: D

Question 3: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is not true about fungus growing on or near plants?

A. It can help maintain in the plant’s health     B. It neither benefits nor harms the plant.

C. It is sometimes dangerous for plants.     D. It grows near the roots of the plant.

Đáp án: C

Question 4: The word “them” in the passage 2 refers to_________.

A. minerals     B. plant roots     C. fungi     D. nutrients

Đáp án: D

Question 5: The author discusses cows and horses in paragraph 3 in order to_________

A. illustrate how fungus can be harmful     B. explain how a type of fungus reproduces

C. give examples of animals that eat fungu     D. show that fungus can be found anywhere

Đáp án: B

Question 6: According to the passage 3, Pilobolus fungus___________

A. doesn’t benefit from its relationship with animals

B. needs other organisms in order to reproduce

C. matures inside the stomachs of cows and horses

D. causes horses and cows to become ill

Đáp án: B

Question 7: The word “graze” in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.

A. eat     B. live     C. view     D. grow

Đáp án: A

THAM KHẢO THÊM:

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